“Wash! Wash! Wash your hands! “ That’s been the safety-mantra ever since the pandemic COVID-19 began swamping
the world. Undoubtedly, washing hands has proven to be the best way to keep germs at bay. Unfortunately, the medical
practitioner who first promoted the importance of this simple activity was subjected to intense humiliation, and ultimately
declared insane!
Ignaz Semmelweis was a Hungarian doctor. In 1847, as an obstetrician, he was disturbed that post-delivery, almost
every third woman died of an unexpected malady. He observed that as a part of the set routine, medical students and
doctors would examine and study the corpses in the mortuary, and then come for rounds to the maternity wards. Here,
without washing their hands, they would examine expectant mothers. After making numerous hypothesis and observations,
he was convinced that when doctors washed their hands before examining the women in the ward, the number of
deaths due to serious infection declined. He shared his observations with his colleagues and many others working in
the field of medicine, but unfortunately he could not provide any concrete evidence to his theory. Sadly, due to the
vehement criticism that he received, he went into depression. Furthermore, Ignaz strived to prove his point so relentlessly
that it led to the belief that he had lost his mind. In 1865, a doctor deceptively lured him into an asylum for the
insane, and two weeks of the brutal treatment that was meted out to him by the attendants led to his untimely death.
About twenty years later, when the world became more receptive to the works of scientists like Louis Pasteur and
Joseph Lister, awareness regarding germs that cause diseases began to spread. This is the time when Ignaz was
honoured with titles like Father of Hand Hygiene and Saviour of Mothers- an honour much too late!
Some of the most celebrated artists have earned fame much after their deaths. It is tragic that Vincent Van Gogh’s aweinspiring
work was labeled as strange and amateur by most of the critics of his time. It is believed that he sold only one
or two painting in his lifetime, and that too for a meager amount. Today, every single painting of Vincent Van Gogh
paintings is worth millions of dollars.
Franz Kafka was a proficient writer, but when he published a few pieces of his writings, he received immense criticism.
Before his death in 1924, he handed over his unpublished novels and short stories to his friend Max Brod, and urged him
to destroy them; however, Brod got the manuscripts published. Today, Franz is acclaimed as one of the major fiction
writers of the twentieth century; the novels titled The Trial published in 1925, and The Castle published in 1926 are
considered two of his masterpieces.
Perhaps, if humans were more tolerant and amenable to change, innovative concepts, theories and creations, the
deserving would live to experience the glory and honour they rightfully deserve.
The modern animal rights movement, which originated in the 1970s, may be understood as a reaction to dominant
emphases within science and religion (principally, though not exclusively, Christianity). When the Jesuit Joseph Rickaby
wrote in 1888 that "Brute beasts, not having understanding and therefore not being persons, cannot have any rights" and
that we have "no duties of charity or duties of any kind to the lower animals as neither to stocks and stones", he was
only articulating, albeit in an extreme form, the moral insensitivity that has characterized the Western view of animals.
That insensitivity is the result of an amalgam of influences. The first, and for many years the most dominant, was the
"other worldly" or "world denying" tendency in Christianity, which has, at its worst, denigrated the value of earthly things
in comparison with things spiritual. Traditional Catholicism has divided the world into those beings that possess reason
and therefore immortal souls, and those that do not. Christian spirituality has not consciously been at home with the
world of non-human creatures-either animal or vegetable. Classic accounts of eternal life as found in Augustine of Hippo,
Thomas Aquinas, or John Calvin make little or no reference to the world of animals. Animals, it seems, are merely
transient or peripheral beings in an otherwise wholly human-centric economy of salvation.
The second idea-common to Christianity, Judaism, and Islam-is that animals, along with vegetables and minerals, exist
instrumentally in relation to human beings; they are made for human beings, even belong to human beings, as resources
in creation. This idea predates Christianity and is found notably in Aristotle, who argues that "since nature
makes nothing to no purpose, it must be that nature has made them for the sake of man". This idea, largely unsupported
by scripture, was nevertheless taken over by Aquinas, who conceived of creation as a rational hierarchy in which
the intellectually inferior existed for the sake of the intellectually superior.
Such instrumentalism, which features rationality as the key factor dividing human beings from "brute beasts," has in
turn buttressed the third influence, namely the notion of human superiority in creation. Human superiority need not, by
itself, have led to the neglect of animal life, but when combined with the biblical ideas of being made "in the image of
God" and God's preferential choice to become incarnate in human form, some sense of moral as well as theological
ascendancy was indicated. As a result, Christianity, and to a lesser extent Judaism, have been characterized historically
by an overwhelming concern for humanity in creation rather than an egalitarian concern for all forms of God-given
life. That humans are more important than animals, and that they self-evidently merit moral solicitude in a way that
animals cannot, has become religious doctrine. Thus the Catechism of the Catholic Church maintains that "it is ...
unworthy to spend money on them [animals] that should as a priority go to the relief of human misery".
These influences have in turn enabled and justified the scientific exploration of the natural world and specifically the
subjection of animals to experimentation. Francis Bacon pursued his scientific investigations in the belief that humanity
should "recover that right over nature which belongs to it by divine bequest'. René Descartes famously likened the
movements of a swallow to the workings of a clock, and maintained that "There is no prejudice to which we are more
accustomed from our earliest years than the belief that dumb animals think".
Q. 6 Jesuit Joseph Rickaby's articulation on animals may be termed as:
As a six-year-old child-beggar, Saroo slept off in a stationary train in Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh; however, when he
woke up, he found himself in an empty compartment of a train thundering towards Kolkata where he spent a couple of
weeks in a state of panic and hopelessness. Finally, he ended up in a local government adoption centre from where he
was adopted by an Australian couple. Twenty five years later, Saroo felt the urge to trace his biological mother and see
in what state she lived. Relentlessly, he used Google's satellite feature to map the parts of the country that could have
possibly been his own hometown. The search was a long and arduous one; nevertheless, the perseverance did pay. One
eventful day, he met his mother; thereafter, he continued to keep in touch with her.
If technology can unite people with their loved ones, it can also make them distant. The unlimited variety of applications
(apps) available to toddlers, teenagers and adults might have revolutionized their lives for the better, but these very apps
have snatched away the joys of long naturewalks; they have encroached upon the time and space that people earlier
used for physical interaction; they have drilled deep chasms of loneliness in the lives of countless numbers of people.
Simple pleasures of life include visiting friends and relatives, playing matches in open spaces, interacting with people in
markets, public libraries and clubs. However, with the escalating rage of using apps like those for social media, playing
virtual games, and homedelivery services, these joyous moments are fading into oblivion, and the pall of loneliness is
getting heavier by the day.
Where are we heading to? Are we going to allow ourselves to be swamped by apps? Are we going to allow socialmedia
to engulf us in a deluge of loneliness and isolation? Are we going to drive ourselves to situations that will ultimately
demand mental and physical therapies to regain normalcy? Do we not know that physical interaction is as essential for
mental health as food and water is for physical health?
Earlier, social isolation was mostly experienced by some of the elderly people who were devoid of an occupation, and
bereft of company of their loved ones. Unfortunately today, an unhealthy solitude prevails among numerous children,
teenagers and adults too; subsequently, there is an alarming increase in the demand for mental health therapy practitioners.
The necessity of engaging psychologists in schools and colleges is evidently on the rise. The psychologists are required to identify and address the learning and behavioral needs of students who approach them for guidance; moreover,
if required, the professionals are expected to help them in strengthening their emotional, social and academic skills.
Regardless how alarming the situation might be, it is never too late. If people revert to the earlier trend of shopping offline,
going for naturewalks, playing outdoors games, and catching up with friends in their homes or cafes more frequently,
they can keep their heads firmly well above the ocean of loneliness.
Q. 11 From the passage it is evident that Saroo's desire to find his mother
The fact that Gaia, in her monstrous avatar, decided to distribute fossil fuels very unevenly across the Earth has been
central to the emergence of the world's current geopolitical order. From a vitalist point of view, it could be said that the
wars of the twentieth century were won as much by the fossilized energy of botanical matter as by particular groups of
humans.
In the First World War Germany's lack of oil put it at a huge disadvantage against the Allies, more or less ensuring its
defeat. The shortage of oil effectively cancelled the technological advantages Germany enjoyed at the start of the war:
despite having a large fleet, for instance, it was unable to use its navy effectively because its coal-burning ships needed
to refuel every eleven days. Conversely, the assured supply of American oil conferred so great an advantage on Britain
and France that "it could be fairly stated that the war was won for the Western allies by tankers." Not for nothing was it
said of the First World War that Britain, France, and the United States floated "to victory on a sea of oil."
In the Second World War the shortage of oil was even more critical to the defeat of the Axis powers. The German
Luftwaffe was forced to rely on synthetic fuels derived from coal, and these could not provide the high-octane energy that
was necessary for high- compression aero engines: "it was largely due to the inferior engines in German aircraft that the Luftwaffe lost the Battle of Britain." The shortage of oil also dictated Germany's war strategy: it was in order to seize the
oilfields of the Caucasus that the German army pushed eastward into the Soviet Union in 1942, leading to a defeat at
Stalingrad from which it never recovered. Japan's invasion of the Dutch East Indies was similarly forced by its lack of oil.
In short, over the course of the twentieth century access to oil became the central focus of global geopolitical strategy:
for a Great Power, to be able to ensure or hinder the flow of oil was to have a thumb on the jugulars of its adversaries. In
the first part of the twentieth century the guarantor of the flow of oil was Britain. After the Second World War, the baton
was passed, along with a string of British naval bases, to the United States. The role of guarantor of global energy flows
is still crucial to US strategic dominance and to its position as global hegemon.
Today, as Elizabeth DeLoughrey has pointed out, "US energy policy has become increasingly militarized and secured
by the Navy, the largest oceanic force on the planet." In the words of the historian Michael Klare, the Iraq War of 2003
marked the transformation of the US military into "a global oil protection service, guarding pipelines, refineries, and
loading facilities in the Middle East and elsewhere."
It is important to note that the strategic value of controlling oil flows is tangentially related to the US's energy requirements.
The period in which the American military was turning into "a global oil protection service" was one in which the US was
well on its way to reducing its dependence on imported oil. The fact that the US is now self- sufficient in fossil fuels has
in no way diminished the strategic importance of oil as an instrument for the projection of power- it is the ability to deny
energy supplies to rivals that is strategically of central importance.
Public speaking is a powerful real-life skill. Over the centuries, impressive speeches made by people from various walks
of life have helped to change hearts, minds and shape the world as we see it today. Speeches that are delivered with
intense emotions and conviction can infuse compassion and forgiveness; elevate levels of hatred and destruction; break
or unite nations.
On October 5, in 1877 in the mountains of Montana Territory, when Chief Joseph surrendered to General Nelson A.
Miles, the former gave a Surrender Speech. The speech included these words: "It is cold, and we have no blankets; the
little children are freezing to death. I want time to look for my children, and see how many of them I can find. Maybe I
shall find them among the dead. Hear me, my Chiefs! I am tired; my heart is sick and sad. From where the sun now
stands I will fight no more forever."
The heart-wrenching speech bared the grief and misery of the speaker, and those subjected to overwhelming hardships.
During World War II, the speech We Shall Fight on the Beaches delivered by Winston Churchill on June 4, 1940 is
considered a high-powered speech that strengthened the determination of those present in the House of Commons. In
the speech, he said, "Even though large tracts of Europe and many old and famous States have fallen or may fall into
the grip of the Gestapo and all the odious apparatus of Nazi rule, we shall not flag or fail. We shall go on to the end, we
shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with growing confidence and growing strength
in the air, we shall defend our island, whatever the cost may be, we shall fight on the beaches, we shall fight on the
landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight in the hills;"
In 1950, William Faulkner was honoured with a Nobel Prize for his significant contributions to the American novel. This
was the time when the Soviet Union had found the possible implications of the use of the atomic bomb, and people had
begun to live in the fear of annihilation. In his Nobel Prize Acceptance Speech, Faulkner urged writers of various genres
to think and write beyond the fear of destruction, and instead write materials that would lift the human spirit. The
powerful message included: "I believe that man will not merely endure: he will prevail. He is immortal, not because he
alone among creatures has an inexhaustible voice, but because he has a soul, a spirit capable of compassion and
sacrifice and endurance. The poet's, the writer's, duty is to write about these things. It is his privilege to help man
endure by lifting his heart, by reminding him of the courage and honor and hope and pride and compassion and pity and
sacrifice which have been the glories of his past. The poet's voice need not merely be the record of man, it can be one
of the props, the pillars to help him endure and prevail."
Undoubtedly, effective speeches have a long-lasting impact on the minds of the listeners, and they elevate the levels of
awareness or actions the speaker intends to raise or catalyze.
Q. 25 In the sentence: 'The poet's voice need not merely be the record of man, it can be one of the props, the pillars to help
him endure and prevail' Faulkner has used _____ to convey the power of a poet's writings.
Cryptocurrencies are a terrible thing. They are the essence of a Ponzi scheme whose value is based entirely on a
greater fool prepared to buy it. The promise of alchemy-turning lead into gold has bewitched humanity throughout the
ages and cryptocurrencies are just the latest alchemy. Do not get me wrong, if rich people want to lose their money, in
this or any other way, they should be allowed to do so. The rich should be the vanguards of new things in case
something unforeseen and good falls out of them. But we need to protect those vulnerable consumers whose lives are
such that almost any get-rich-quick schemes will be seductive, and seven out of 10 times, they will lose their life
savings. Cryptocurrencies are today's South Sea Bubble – one of the earliest recorded financial bubbles that took place
in the 1720s' Britain. Meme-based currencies like Dogecoin, Dogelon Mars and Doge Dash remind me of the infamous
plan of one company during the South Sea Bubble to raise money "for carrying on an undertaking of great advantage;
but nobody to know what it is."
The cryptocurrency bubble is worse than tulip mania. Through the veil of technology, cryptocurrency enthusiasts are
leaning on policy-makers to permit them to be exempt from regulation, privatize money, and make money so disconnected
from the economy that it would reap financial disaster. There are many reasons to avoid financial disasters, but one of
them is that they ratchet up poverty and inequality. The current money-credit system is not perfect, but like democracy,
it is the worst system barring all the others. It has evolved from the ashes of the system cryptocurrency enthusiasts are
trying to resurrect.
The current system is vulnerable to attack because money is little understood. Cryptocurrency enthusiasts have attracted
a following based on the fiction that the central bank or government creates money and are busy debasing it in their selfinterest.
This is not the case, but then again, there is some overlap between cryptocurrency advocates, conspiracy
theorists, and anti-vaxxers. The time has come for someone to stand up for the current fiat money system and explain
that while it could be better still, it has been associated with far more growth, much more distributed, and has responded
better to economic crisis than what came before.
In today's money-credit system, banks create money when they issue a loan and place the loan's proceeds into the
account of their customers, creating a deposit. Money is, in fact, a tradable debt. The bank's deposit can be used as
cash because the bank is a regulated issuer of loans and deposit-taker, which gives the deposit credibility and convertibility.
The central bank only influences the creation of money indirectly by its regulatory requirement that a proportion of the
loans need to be funded by shareholder's profits. They need to have skin in the game. Money creation then is based on
thousands of separate decisions by loan officers and is more distributed than a centralized algorithm like Bitcoin. And
its supply is determined by the private demand for loans, which means it is closely aligned to the economy.
Q. 26 Which of the following does best describe attitude of the author towards rich people?
One of the justifications of Russia-Ukraine war Russian leader claimed that military action was necessary
to stop Ukrainian attacks on the two break away regions of Donetsk and Lugansk, which Russia recognized
as sovereign states. President of Russia claimed that Russia could come under attack by Ukrainian far right
government, unless their influence in the country is diminished. He accused Western Nations of arming
Kyiv against Russia. After being ordered by Russia’s leader to invade the capital of Ukraine, Russian troops
moved in several directions. As the first targets were hit, airports and the military HQs were located near
cities across Ukraine, then tanks and troops rolled into the country from the north, east, and south. The war
has demolished most of the cities of the Ukraine and caused irreparable damage to the humanity.
Q. 31 Ukraine was part of which country during 1922-1991?
With the announcement of Drone Shakti in the Union Budget, the industry got a massive push after the
liberalization of the Drone Rules in 2021. The Government stated that start-ups will be promoted to facilitate
Drone Shakti, with 'drone as a service'.
"The current Government has taken a serious paradigm shift on drone technology and Drone Shakti
announcement of the current FY budget proves the government's clear vision and focus towards this
emerging industry. Drone Shakti and Kisan Drones will definitely help get this technology to impact common
people on the grassroots level at a massive scale," according to the founder and CEO of a prominent
aerospace quoted in a business magazine. The country is set to witness the use of large, unmanned
aircraft systems weighing more than 150 kilograms across the sectors. Kisan Drones are already being
used for crop assessments, land records, spraying of insecticides, and are expected to boost a wave of
technology in the Agri and farming sector. Drones are also being used in surveillance systems for Railway
Security. In India, drones were also deployed to deliver COVID-19 vaccines.
Q. 36 COVID-19 vaccines were delivered by drones as ICMR-led pilot project to:
Q. 37 Which of the following is the online platform hosted by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation for various
activities related to the management of drone activities in India?
On December 26, 2021, for the first time since the present government came to power in 2014, the Union
Home Ministry constituted a panel led by its officers to review the withdrawal of the Armed areas. The Act
was amended in 1972 and the powers to declare an area as “disturbed" were conferred concurrently upon
the Central Government along with the States. Currently, the MHA issues periodic "disturbed area" notification
to extend AFSPA only for Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, where it is applicable in the districts of Tirap,
Changlang, Longding and areas falling under Namsai and Mahadevpur police stations bordering Assam.
The notification for Manipur and Assam is issued by the State Governments. Tripura revoked the Act in 2015
and Meghalaya was under AFSPA for 27 years, until it was revoke by the MHA from April 1, 2018. The Act was
implemented in a 20-km area along the border with Assam. Jammu and Kashmir has a separate J&K
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1990.
Q. 41 Power to notify parts of or the whole of a State or a Union Territory as a 'disturbed area’, under the Armed
Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is vested with:
Q. 44 In 2005, a government-appointed five-member committee, recommended that AFSPA be repealed.
It suggested that the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act could be suitably amended to deal with terrorism. It
made this recommendation as it felt that the AFSPA created an impression that the people of the Northeast
States were being targeted for hostile treatment. Who headed this committee?
The 21st century has seen an overall shift in India's policy outlook and also the global outlook towards India.
Coherent policy initiatives and effective implementation on the ground have ensured a positive growth profile.
The biggest shift has been the recognition of the maritime sector. Somehow, post-independence, we as a
nation became sea blind and completely undermined our maritime potential. Initially, the Indian Navy came
out with their Military Maritime Strategy in 2007, titled "Freedom to use the Seas". They kept on upgrading
their vision document on regular intervals with latest being declared in 2015. The Security And Growth for All
in the Region (SAGAR) vision declared by the Government of India in May 2015 has been a massive game
changer on multiple fronts. It integrates the geopolitical and geostrategic realities to domestic requirements.
The security concerns and the blue economic opportunities are comprehensively addressed along with the
diplomatic leverage and reviving the rich maritime heritage.
The SAGAR vision has been backed by aggressive push by the Government of India to drive mega projects
with massive human resource requirements.
Q. 46 Which of the following is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Shipping, Government of India, to promote
port-led development in the country through harnessing India's 7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km of potentially
navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes?
Q. 47 Which of the following is the initiative of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India, to
explore marine resources and develop deep sea technologies for sustainable use of ocean resources?
Q. 48 ISA is a United Nations body regulating the exploration and exploitation of marine non-living resources of
oceans in international waters. ISA stands for:
Q. 49 Under Mission SAGAR, which Indian Naval Ship was deployed by the Indian Navy to provide humanitarian
and medical assistance to Maldives, Mauritius, Seychelles, Madagascar and Comoros?
When we hear the name SPACE, only one organization comes to mind: the Indian Space Research
Organization (ISRO). The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), located in Bengaluru, is the country's
first space agency. ISRO was founded in 1969 with the goal of developing and utilizing space technology for
national development while also conducting planetary exploration and space science research. The space
research operations began in India in the early 1960s, at a time when satellite applications were still in the
experimental stages in the United States. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the founding father of India's space programme,
rapidly recognized the benefits of space technologies after the live transmission of the Tokyo Olympic Games
across the Pacific by the American satellite 'Syncom-3' demonstrated the power of communication satellites.
The ISRO has launched various spacecrafts like the Chandrayaan, Astrosat, Microsat, GSAT etc. The
Government of India has also approved a regional spaceborne navigation system, which will consist of
seven satellites. Out of these, four of them will be placed in geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29° relative to
the equatorial plane. Such an arrangement would mean all seven satellites would have continuous radio
visibility with Indian control stations.
Q. 51 Name the first dedicated mission launched by ISRO for studying the celestial sources in X-ray, optical and
UV spectral bands simultaneously.
Every second patent granted in India between 2016-2021 is related to green technology and a quarter of the
green technology patents are concerning alternative energy production, coinciding with the Centre's efforts
on "enhanced use of green technology for boosting economy and encouraging consumers to use products
produced through use of such technology". Data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry shows that
more than 91,500 patents were granted between 2016-17 and 2020-21, while the data for 2021-22 was not
immediately available. However, going by the trend in the past two years, India is expected to clear at least
25,000 more applications this year. Separate data from the ministry shows that between 2016-17 and
2021-22 (up to January), 61,186 patents related to green technologies have been granted in the said period.
Of these, 90% are for technologies concerning waste management and alternative energy production-
38,837 or 63% of them are related to waste management and more than 16,000 or 26% are for alternative
energy production. The rest of the green technology patentsare for energy conservation (2,555), transportation
technologies (2,481), nuclear power generation (1,079), agriculture-and-forestry (161), and others (69).
Q. 56 With which country India entered into a 'Green Strategic Partnership' in September 2020?
Q. 58 According to the Global Innovation Index 2021 published by the World Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO), India is ranked ________ out of 132 countries.
Q. 60 The IRENA is an intergovernmental organization that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable
energy future and serves as the principal platform for international co-operation on renewable energy. IRENA
stands for:
The Government may defer the deadline for companies to deposit the unspent portion of their Corporate
Social Responsibility (CSR) funds into specified bank accounts in a move aimed at providing some relief in
the fight against the COVID-19 and subsequent restrictions. Companies are required to spend at least 2%
of their average net profit of the preceding within three financial years on CSR. The Ministry has allowed
firms to undertake projects on an ongoing basis on the condition that any unspent amount must be deposited
with a scheduled bank within 30 days of the end of the financial year. "Considering the current crisis, we
request your esteemed office to consider relaxation by providing extension of the timelines up to June 30,
2021," the Institute of Company Secretaries of India said in a letter to the Ministry. Experts said that while
lockdowns and restrictions are less stringent than last year and companies have adapted to working online,
many professionals or their families have been affected by the infection, leaving teams short-staffed.
Q. 61 Which of the following is the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiative of the erstwhile Facebook India
to promote women entrepreneurship?
Q. 63 CAWACH is an initiative by the National Science and Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board,
Department of Science and Technology, Government of India stands for the:
Q. 65 The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has instituted an award to select companies to recognize corporate initiatives
in the area of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) to achieve inclusive growth and inclusive and sustainable
development. The name of the award is:
To maintain the secular character of the Indian polity, not only does the Constitution of India guarantee
freedom of religion to individuals and groups, but it is also against the general policy of the Constitution of
India that any money be paid out of the public funds for promoting or maintaining any particular religion.
Accordingly, it is provided in the Constitution of India that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the
proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance
of any particular religion or religious denomination. This does not prohibit the State from enacting a law to
incur expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination, but by
such law, no person can be compelled to pay any tax, the proceeds of which are to be so utilized. This,
however, does not invalidate levy of a fee to provide some service. Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to
a religious fair to meet the expenses of the measures taken to safeguard the health, safety and welfare of
the pilgrims. Such fee levied by a State will be valid because the object of such contribution is not to foster or
preserve religion, but to control secular administration of religious institutions.
Q. 66 Mr. A, a tax-payer of various taxes levied by the State Government, filed a writ petition for issuance of a writ
of mandamus directing the State to forbear from spending any amount from the public funds of the state for
renovation of water tanks belonging to a Hindu temple in the State. These tanks were used by the general
public, irrespective of their religious affiliation, for bathing and drinking purposes. In the given situation, which
of the following statements is correct?
Q. 67 Communal riots between religion 'A' and religion 'B' resulted in the destruction of places of worship of both
religions in a State. As a result, the State Government utilized public funds for restoring the places of worship
of both religions 'A' and 'B'. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Q. 68 Communal riots between religion 'A' and religion 'B' resulted in the destruction of a place of worship of
religion 'B' in the State. As a result, the State Government utilized public funds for restoring the places of
worship of religion 'B'. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Q. 69 A State Government passed a law making it mandatory for all residents of the State to pay a hefty 'pilgrimage
tax' so as to aid the State in organizing a popular religious pilgrimage in that State. The said pilgrimage is
undertaken only by followers of religion 'X' and draws a large number of followers of religion 'X' from all over
the country to the state every year. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Q. 70 The object of a State Legislation is "to provide for the better administration and governance of certain Hindu
religious endowments", where 'religious endowment' means the property belonging to or given or endowed
for the support of temples. The State Legislation vests the supervision of public temples in a statutory
authority, i.e., 'Commissioner of Hindu Religious Endowments'. For the purpose of meeting the expenses of
the Commissioner and his staff, every Hindu temple in the State is required under provisions of the State
Legislation, to pay an annual contribution at certain percentage of their annual income. In the given situation,
which of the following statements is correct regarding the annual contribution provided under the State
Legislation?
Where a spouse contracts a second marriage while the first marriage is still subsisting, the spouse would
be guilty of the offence of bigamy under the penal law in India, if it is proved that the first as well as the second
marriages were legally valid, i.e., all the necessary ceremonies required by law or by custom have been
performed at the time of contracting the marriages. According to the penal law in India, if a person, who has
a living husband or wife, marries again, then such person is liable to be punished with imprisonment up to
seven years along with a fine for committing the offence of bigamy. Although the penal law of India is applicable
to all citizens irrespective of their religious affiliations, an exception to the offence of bigamy may be created
by the law relating to marriage applicable to followers of a particular religion. Under the Hindu law relating to
marriage, bigamy is not permitted. If a Hindu wife files a criminal complaint against her husband on the
ground that during the subsistence of her marriage, her husband had married a second wife by converting
into another religion which legally permits having more than one wife, then her husband is liable to be
punished for the offence of bigamy. Further, the Hindu law relating to marriage also provides that the punishment
for offence of bigamy as provided in the penal law of India would be applicable to marriage between two
Hindus.
Q. 71 Mr. A, a Hindu male, has been married to Ms. B, a Hindu female. Their marriage was solemnized as per
Hindu rites and ceremonies. After his marriage to Ms. B, Mr. A underwent religious conversion into a religion
'X' which legally permits males to have two wives. Thereafter, Mr. A got married to Ms. C, a female belonging
to religion 'X', in compliance with all the legal requirements of contracting a valid marriage under religion 'X'.
In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
Q. 72 Mr. A, a Hindu male, has been married to Ms. B, a Hindu female. Their marriage was solemnized as per
Hindu rites and ceremonies. After his marriage to Ms. B, Mr. A underwent religious conversion into a religion
'X' which legally permits males to have two wives. Thereafter, Mr. A got married to Ms. C, a female belonging
to religion 'X', in compliance with all the legal requirements of contracting a valid marriage under religion 'X'.
Ms. B filed a criminal complaint against Mr. A for committing the offence of bigamy. In the given situation,
which of the following statements is true?
Q. 73 Mr. A, a Hindu male, has been married to Ms. B, a Hindu female. Their marriage was not solemnized as per
Hindu rites and ceremonies or any other custom, but was performed by seeking blessings of their family
members. After his marriage to Ms. B, Mr. A underwent religious conversion into a religion 'X' which legally
permits males to have two wives. Thereafter, Mr. A got married to Ms. C, a female belonging to religion 'X', in
compliance with all the legal requirements of contracting a valid marriage under religion 'X'. Ms. B filed a
criminal complaint against Mr. A for committing the offence of bigamy. In the given situation, which of the
following statements is true?
Q. 74 Mr. A, a male belonging to religion 'P', has been married to Ms. B, a female belonging to religion 'P'. Their
marriage was solemnized in compliance with all the legal requirements of contracting a valid marriage
under religion 'P'. Monogamy is espoused as a cherished value by the followers of religion 'P' and provided
as a pre-condition for a valid marriage for the followers of the religion. After his marriage to Ms. B, Mr. A
underwent religious conversion into a religion 'Q' which legally permits males to have two wives. Thereafter,
Mr. A got married to Ms. C, a female belonging to religion 'Q', in compliance with all the legal requirements of
contracting a valid marriage under religion 'Q'. Ms. B wife filed a criminal complaint against Mr. A for committing
the offence of bigamy. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
There are two principal theories on the relationship between international law and domestic law- Monism
and Dualism. The monistic theory maintains that the subjects of two systems of law, i.e., international law
and municipal law are essentially one. The monistic theory asserts that international law and municipal law
are fundamentally the same in nature, and arise from the same science of law, and are manifestations of a
single conception of law. The followers of this theory view international law and municipal law as part of a
universal body of legal rules binding all human beings, collectively or singly. In a monist system, international
law does not need to be incorporated into domestic law because international law immediately becomes
incorporated in domestic legal system upon ratification of an international treaty. According to this theory,
domestic law is subordinate to international law. The Statute of the International Criminal Court, therefore,
can be directly applied and adjudicated in national courts according to the monistic theory. According to
dualism theory, international law and municipal law represent two entirely distinct legal systems, i.e.,
international has an intrinsically different character from that of municipal law. International law is not directly
applicable in the domestic system under dualism. First, international law must be translated into State
legislation before the domestic courts can apply it. For example, under dualism, ratification of the Statute of
the International Criminal Court is not enough-it must be implemented through State legislation into the
domestic system. Most states and courts presumptively view national and international legal systems as
discrete entities and routinely discuss in dualist fashion incorporation of rules from one system to the other.
Q. 76 In light of the given passage, which of the following statements is correct?
Q. 77 'X' is a developing country. 'X' ratified the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in 1995,
and incorporated the provisions of the said convention in its domestic legislation addressing climate change
in 1996. However, 'X' has been widely criticized in the international community for its failure in meeting the
obligations under the said convention. 'Y' is a developed country. ‘Y' ratified the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change in 1995, and has not incorporated the provisions of the said convention in its
domestic legislation till date. 'Y' has been appreciated by the international community for its success in
meeting the obligations under the said convention. In the given situation, which of the following statements is
correct?
Q. 78 'D', a dualist State, has signed and ratified the Agreement on Trade-related Aspects of Intellectual Property
Rights (TRIPS Agreement), an international agreement administered by the World Trade Organization (WTO).
If 'D' is compelled to fulfill its international obligations under the TRIPS Agreement, which of the following
statements is correct?
Q. 80 The country 'X' has ratified an International Convention which requires each State Party to enact laws defining
and punishing bribery, i.e., the act of offering bribes to Government officials. The Convention has neither
defined bribery, nor prescribed a punishment for the same, so that each State Party may define the offence
of bribery differently in their respective domestic legislations. By 2022, 'X' has not enacted any law defining
and punishing the offence of bribery. In November 2021, Mr. A was being prosecuted by a domestic criminal
court in 'X' for allegedly offering a bribe to a Government official. In the given situation, which of the following
statements is correct?
A special marriage, i.e., a marriage between persons from two different religious affiliations can be legally
contracted in India under the provisions of the law relating to special marriages. The law relating to special
marriages provides for the registration of such marriages and for divorce in such cases. One of the modes
in which a special marriage can be legally terminated is through divorce by mutual consent of parties to the
marriage. In order to obtain a divorce by mutual consent, both the parties to the special marriage are required
to jointly present a petition for divorce to the district court on the ground that they have been living separately
for one year or more, that they have not been able to live together and that they have mutually agreed that the
marriage should be dissolved. At least six months after the presentation of such petition, but not later than
eighteen months after the presentation of such petition, the district court, after hearing the parties and after
making the necessary inquiry, and being satisfied that the marriage is a 'special marriage', and that the
claims made in the petition are true, shall declare the marriage to be dissolved. Further, the personal presence
of the parties before the district court at the time of presenting the joint petition for divorce is not mandatory,
as the parties can satisfy the court even by affidavit that the requirements for granting divorce on mutual
consent are fulfilled.
Q. 81 Ms. A, a Hindu female and Mr. B, a Christian male, got married as per the law relating to special marriages
in January 2018. On January 26, 2021, Ms. A and Mr. B jointly presented a petition for divorce by mutual
consent before the district court on the ground that they have been inflicting mental cruelty on each other for
a period of three years and that they have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved. In the
given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Q. 82 Ms. A, a Hindu female and Mr. B, a Christian male, got married as per the law relating to special marriages
in January 2018. On February 15, 2021, Ms. A presented a petition for divorce by mutual consent before the
district court on the ground that Ms. A and Mr. B have been living separately for a period of one year because
Mr. B has been in an adulterous relationship with Ms. X, a Christian female. In the given situation, which of
the following statements is correct?
Q. 83 Ms. A, a Hindu female and Mr. B, a Christian male, got married as per the law relating to special marriages
in January 2018. On April 10, 2021, Ms. A and Mr. B jointly presented a petition for divorce by mutual consent
before the district court on the ground that they have been living separately for a period of three years and
that they have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved. In the given situation, which of the
following statements is correct?
Q. 84 Ms. A, a Hindu female and Mr. B, a Christian male, got married as per the provisions of the law relating to
special marriages in January 2018. On June 16, 2021, Ms. A and Mr. B jointly presented a petition for divorce
by mutual consent before the district court on the ground that they have been living separately for a period of
three years and that they have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved. During the presentation
of the petition, while Ms. A was present physically in the district court, Mr. B joined via video-conferencing. In
the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Q. 85 Ms. A, a Hindu female and Mr. B, a Christian male, got married as per the law relating to special marriages
in January 2018. On March 15, 2021, Ms. A and Mr. B jointly presented a petition for divorce before the district
court on the ground that they have been living separately for a period of three years and that they have
mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved. Six months later, the district court, after hearing the
parties and making inquiry, found that the marriage had been solemnized under the law relating to special
marriages, and that the consent of Ms. A for the presentation of petition of divorce was obtained by fraud. In
the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
When parties to a contract are under a 'mistake' regarding an important fact related to such contract, it may
affect the contract in two ways. It may, firstly, defeat the consent altogether that the parties are supposed to
have given, that is to say, the consent is unreal. Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree
upon the same thing in the same sense. Secondly, the mistake may mislead the parties as to the purpose
which they had contemplated. Where the mistake does not defeat consent, but only misleads the parties,
i.e., where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement,
the agreement is void. However, if the mistake is concerning an erroneous opinion regarding value of the
subject-matter of the agreement, it is not a mistake as to a matter of fact. Thus, agreement is void when: (1)
both the parties to an agreement are mistaken, (2) their mistake is as to a matter of fact, and (3) the fact
about which they are mistaken is essential to the agreement. Further, it is pertinent to note that a mistake, in
order to invalidate a contract, should be a mistake of fact and not a mistake of law. Furthermore, where only
one party to the contract is under mistake of fact, and the other party is not, the contract is not voidable
merely for such reason.
Q. 86 Mr. A entered into an agreement to sell his bicycle which had been kept unused in his attic for a year, to Mr.
B, at an agreed price. However, neither party was aware that at the time of entering into the agreement, the
bicycle had already been destroyed by a fire in the attic. In the given situation, which of the following statements
is true?
Q. 87 Ms. X and Ms. Y entered into a contract of sale of an article, while reeling under the erroneous belief that the
sale of the article, which was the subject-matter of the agreement, was permitted by the law in force in India.
In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
Q. 88 Mr. J entered into an agreement with Mr. K for the sale of Mr. J's 'club'. At the time of entering into the
agreement, while Mr. J believed that he was agreeing to sell his golf club, Mr. K believed that he was agreeing
to buy a clubhouse owned by Mr. J. The agreement is void because:
Q. 89 Mr. D appointed Mr. K to manage the cultivation of his land as he was unable to manage it himself due to his
advanced age. Mr. K agreed to manage the cultivation of Mr. D's land if he granted Mr. K a lease of the said
land. Mr. D agreed to the same and signed a deed which was, unknown to both parties, a gift deed of the land
and not a lease deed. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
Q. 90 Ms. X and Ms. Y entered into a contract of sale of an article which was agreed to be shipped by Ms. X in a
ship named 'The Cruiser' and delivered to Ms. Y on an agreed date. Mr. X shipped the said article by a
different ship named 'The Mariner', without informing Ms. Y and the article was delivered to Ms. Y on the
agreed date. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
The United Nations Commission on Environment and Development defines 'sustainable development' as
follows: "Sustainable development is the development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs." Sustainable development clearly
postulates an anthropocentric bias, least concerned with the rights of other species which live on this earth.
Anthropocentrism is always human-interest focused thinking that considers non-humans as having only
instrumental value to humans, in other words, humans take precedence and human responsibilities towards
non-human are based on benefits to humans. Eco-centrism is nature-centred, where humans are part of
nature and non-humans have intrinsic value. In other words, human interest does not take automatic
precedence and humans have obligations towards non-humans independently of human interest. Ecocentrism
is, therefore, life-centred, nature-centred where nature includes both humans and non-humans.
The Constitution of India protects not only human rights but also casts an obligation on human beings to
protect and preserve a specie from becoming extinct. Conservation and protection of environment is an
inseparable part of the fundamental right to life. According to the doctrine of 'public trust' recognized under
the Constitution of India, certain common properties such as rivers, seashores, forests and the air are held
by the Government in trusteeship for the free and unimpeded use of the general public. The resources like
air, sea, waters and the forests have such a great importance to the people as a whole, that it would be
totally unjustified to make them a subject of private ownership. The State, as a custodian of the natural
resources, has a duty to maintain them not merely for the benefit of the public, but for the best interest of
flora and fauna, wildlife and so on.
Q. 91 Ms. G, a student of environmental science, has cultivated a butterfly garden which provides a favourable
habitat for butterflies. Ms. G has cultivated the butterfly garden so that she could observe and study the
different stages of development of butterflies such as egg, larvae, pupae, and adult. In the given situation,
which of the following statements is correct?
Writ is a public law remedy. It refers to a formal, written order issued by a judicial authority directing an
individual or authority to do or refrain from doing an act. The High Court, while exercising its power of judicial
review, does not act as an appellate body. It is concerned with illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety
of an order passed by the State or a Statutory Authority. A High Court is empowered to issue directions,
orders or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose. The writ jurisdiction of
High Court is discretionary and equitable. Writ of mandamus is issued by a court commanding a public
authority to perform a public duty belonging to its office. It can be issued only when a legal duty is imposed
on the authority and the petitioner has right to compel the performance of such duty. Writ of mandamus is
requested to be issued, inter alia, to compel performance of public duties which may be administrative,
ministerial or statutory in nature. A writ of mandamus may be issued in favour of a person who establishes
a legal right in himself. It may be issued against a person who has a mandatory legal duty to perform, but has
failed or has neglected to do so. Such a legal duty emanates by operation of law. The writ of mandamus is
most extensive in regards to its remedial nature. The object of mandamus is to prevent disorder emanating
from failure of justice and is required to be granted in all cases where law has established no specific
remedy.
Q. 96 The government of a state made a rule to make it discretionary to grant dearness allowance to its employees.
One of the employees filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel the government to grant dearness
allowance. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
Q. 97 A public-spirited citizen filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel the government to make a law to
curb the ill-effects of climate change. In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
Q. 98 Mr. A and Mr. B are parties to a contract of sale of goods. Upon breach of contractual obligations by Mr. A, Mr.
B filed a writ petition seeking a mandamus to compel Mr. A to perform his obligations under the contract. In
the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
Q. 99 A licensing officer is under a statutory duty to issue a license to an applicant who fulfils the conditions
prescribed for the issue of such license. Mr. X, an applicant, fulfilled all the conditions prescribed for the
issue of such license, but his application for issuance of license was rejected by the licensing officer. In the
given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
The Constitution of India guarantees to all its citizens certain fundamental freedoms, which are recognized
as their fundamental rights. However, these fundamental freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution of India
are not absolute as no right can be. Each of these fundamental rights is liable to be controlled, curtailed and
regulated to some extent by laws made by the Parliament or the State Legislatures. Accordingly, the
Constitution of India lays down the grounds and the purposes for which a legislature can impose 'reasonable
restrictions' on the rights guaranteed to citizens. The State cannot travel beyond the contours of these
reasonable restrictions in curbing the fundamental rights guaranteed to citizens. While determining the
constitutional validity of a restriction imposed on a fundamental right by a legislation, the Court is not concerned
with the necessity of the restriction or the wisdom of the policy underlying it, but only whether the restriction
is in excess of the requirement, and whether the legislature has overstepped the Constitutional limitations.
Two of the fundamental rights guaranteed to every citizen of India are- the right to move freely throughout the
territory of India and the right to reside and settle in any part of India. However, the State may impose
reasonable restrictions on these rights by law, in the interests of the general public or for the protection of the
interests of any Scheduled Tribes.
Q. 101 A law was enacted by the Parliament of India which consisted of a provision making it mandatory for every
person riding a two-wheeler in India, to wear a helmet, failing which such person was made liable to a fine.
Mr. X, a citizen of India, was fined for violation of the said provision. Mr. X challenged the constitutional validity
of the said provision. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Q. 102 A group of Indian students of XYZ University located in New Delhi, India posted on social networking sites
that they would hold a demonstration outside the university campus, protesting against a recently passed
law which made it compulsory for university students to wear uniforms while attending classes. The students
further threatened to "use whatever means necessary" to "stop the oppression of students". Therefore, the
State Authorities placed barricades around the university campus in order to restrict movement of the students
carrying out the demonstration and ensuring that the demonstration does not turn violent. In the given situation,
which of the following statements is correct regarding the act of placing of barricades by State Authorities?
Q. 103 The appropriate authority in a State passed an externment order against Mr. A, a citizen of India. The externment
order prohibited Mr. A, from residing within the State, from the date specified in such order. The externment
order was passed by virtue of powers conferred on the appropriate authority by law, and the constitutional
validity of this law had been upheld by the Supreme Court of India. The externment order was passed on the
ground that Mr. A was found to be frequently engaged in illegal business of narcotic drugs and was also
involved in several cases of riot and criminal intimidation. In the given situation, which of the following statements
is correct regarding the externment order?
Q. 104 Mr. Z, a citizen of India, was issued a passport on June 1,2020 by the Passport Office. Mr. Z was due to travel
to Spain on July 15, 2021. On July 11,2021, Mr. Z received a letter from the Regional Passport Officer
intimating him that it was decided by the Government of India to seize his passport "in public interest'. Mr. Z
was required to surrender his passport within seven days of the receipt of that letter. In the given situation,
which of the following statements is correct?
Biodiversity is being lost at a rate not seen since the last mass extinction. But the United Nations decade-old plan to
slow down and eventually stop the decline of species and ecosystems by 2020 has failed. Most of the plan’s 20 targets
- known as the Aichi Biodiversity Targets - have not been met. The Aichi targets are part of an international agreement
called the UN Convention on Biological Diversity, and member states are now finalizing replacements for them. Currently
referred to as the post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), its draft was published in July 2021. It aims to slow
down the rate of biodiversity loss by 2030. And by 2050, biodiversity will be “valued, conserved, restored and wisely
used, maintaining ecosystem services, sustaining a healthy planet and delivering benefits essential for all people”. The
GBF is a comprehensive plan. But success will require systemic change across public policy. That is both a strength
and a weakness. If systemic change can be implemented, it will lead to real change. But if it cannot, there’s no plan B.
This has led some researchers to argue that one target or number should be prioritized and defined in a way that is clear
to the public and to policy makers. It would be biodiversity’s equivalent of the 2°C climate target.
Q. 106 As per the passage, which of the following is a challenge for implementation of the post-2020 Global Biodiversity
Framework (GBF)?
Two recent developments have brought India’s reliance on fossil fuel into sharp focus. The Russia_Ukraine conflict and
the consequent surge in crude oil prices roiled the economy. Separately, the most recent IPCC report on climate
highlighted the energy sector’s large contribution to global warming. Both these developments need to be located in the
context of India’s pledge to get to net zero carbon emissions by 2070. Meeting this pledge requires an overhaul of both
the logistics and electricity sectors to reduce reliance on fossil fuels. Transitioning to renewables in energy is an
important part of the solution. Within renewables, solar energy has been lavished with policy support. However, it won’t be enough to meet the targets. Anil Kakodkar, former chairman of Atomic Energy Commission, had written that India
can’t meet its net-zero commitment without nuclear power. He’s right. It’s an area where India was off to an early start,
developed relatively high indigenous capabilities in relation to other sectors, but subsequently let the ball drop. Today,
nuclear power contributes a mere 3% of the total electricity generated, and has a capacity of 6780 MW. After the early
euphoria of the India-United States civil nuclear deal, progress has been disappointing. The deal did open the pathway
to a stable supply of uranium ore from Kazakhstan and Canada. However, the design of the subsequent bill on civil
liability for nuclear damage killed the prospect of participation of Western firms. India’s main partner today is Russia,
which side stepped the bill through inter-government agreements.
Q. 111 What is the central idea in the passage as conveyed by the author?
Under the COVID-19 outbreak, universities and schools around the world had suspended face-to-face classes to prevent
the rapid spread of the virus among students and staff. This sudden disruption to face-to-face education reshaped
pedagogical practices and led to the rapid adoption of online teaching among universities. Subsequently, academics
working at universities, at the frontline of those changes, faced enormous levels of pressure and disturbance to their
professional roles and practices. For those without sufficient knowledge or experience for effective online teaching, this
sudden transition was particularly challenging. In normal circumstances, designing an online course follows a systematic
instructional design process with careful consideration of the unique characteristics of target learner groups and the
chosen instructional medium. During the rapid adoption of online teaching in response to COVID-19, however, systematic
instructional design procedures and team-based support for course development and preparation were unavailable.
Instead, individual academics were given the challenge alone to teach online with a limited level of support and guidance
from their school or university - the task was even more difficult in this situation where they were remotely working from
home.
Q. 116 The objective behind the information furnished in the passage is:
Q. 117 Based on the ideas presented in the paragraph, it will not be possible to draw out useful recommendations for situations
like the pandemic, unless:
Q. 119 What suitable policy decision should be devised by the administrators of the schools and the universities, in the light of
the facts presented in the paragraph?
Q. 120 Which of the following points most closely supports the fact that the present education system lacks the structure to
sustain effective teaching during and after the periods of lockdowns?
A Madras High Court Judge’s suggestion to amend the Constitution of India mandating that every citizen also has a duty
to laugh comes as a whiff of fresh air - something the country has been gasping for, of late. Justice GR Swaminathan of
the Madurai Bench has a remarkably refined sense of humour, but in quashing an FIR against a man arrested for an
innocuous social media post, his insightful observations only highlight the idiocy and absurdity that surround the growth
and normalisation of the offence-taking tribe. Written from the perspective of cartoonists and satirists, the judgment
draws attention to how what ought to be a reasonable understanding of a situation is increasingly being influenced by
impulses that border on the irrational and amount to an abuse of the legal process. The petitioner tried tongue-in-cheek
wordplay while captioning photographs after a sight-seeing trip with family : ‘Trip to Sirumalai for shooting practice’. For
the police, it appeared as a threat to wage war, though the Judicial Magistrate refused remand. ‘Laugh at what?’ is a
serious question, the Judge said, using the ‘holy cow’ as a metaphor, which varies from person to person, region to
region. Being funny is one thing, the Judge righty states, and poking fun at another is different altogether. Those who
have been at the receiving end for their attempt at humour can draw strength from the ruling, but then, a creative process
facing combative opposition because of its very nature is anything but funny.
Q. 121 What is the central idea in the passage as conveyed by the author?
Q. 124 As per the passage, which of the following approaches can reduce the increasing ‘idiocy and absurdity’ in responding to
expressions made in jest?
Q. 125 “Those who have been at the receiving end for their attempt at humour can draw strength from the ruling, but then, a
creative process facing combative opposition because of its very nature is anything but funny.”
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statement?
Students decide to attend college for several reasons. These reasons include career opportunities and financial stability,
intellectual growth, a time for self-discovery, norms, obligations, and social opportunities. Outside demands in society,
such as technology changes, and increased educational demands also drive the need for more students to attend
college. The students then spend the next few years trying to discover a path and find their way so they can become
successful. The transition to college presents students with many new challenges, including increased academic
demands, less time with family members, interpersonal problems with roommates and romantic interests, and financial
stress. Competitive academic work and uncertainty about future employment and professional career were also noted
as sources of stress. The transition to college represents a process characterized by change, ambiguity, and adjustment
across all of life’s domains. The transition towards independence and self-sufficiency has been characterized as ‘stressarousing’
and ‘anxiety-provoking’ by many college students. Failure to accomplish and develop these characteristics of
development and maintain independence may result in life dissatisfaction. Emerging adulthood has also been noted to
augment college students’ vulnerability to stress. Many students experience their first symptoms of depression and
anxiety during this time, but a growing problem is that college campuses do not have enough resources to help all of
these students. It has been noted that 75% to 80% of college students are moderately stressed and 10% to 12% are
severely stressed.
Q. 126 What according to you is the objective of the study of the present paragraph?
Q. 130 With reference to the above paragraph, which of the following offers the most plausible solutions as a coping up
mechanism for college students?
An unintended and unjust consequence of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 is its widespread
persecution of teenage lovers. This law raised the age of consent from 16 to 18 years, while defining persons below 18
years as children. Consequently, when two 16-year-olds are romantically and sexually involved, but the girl’s family
doesn’t approve the affair and files a police complaint, her consent has zero legal validity. And the consensual relationship
morphs into a case of statutory rape. The Allahabad High Court has indicated how its “conscience” is concerned by
such severe POCSO provisions being drawn by teenage lovers simply on the basis of family disapproval. The High
Courts of Delhi, Madras and others have made similar observations in recent years and also pointed to amendments to
the law that can help reduce its injustices. One suggestion that has gathered broad support is to push back both the
cut-off for childhood and the age of consent to 16 years. Given that the NCRB data shows around half of POCSO cases
falling in the 16-18 years age group, such an amendment is overdue. Minimizing the prosecution of consensual romances
would also leave a logjammed system with more space to pursue actual sexual assault cases. The broader goal here
is respecting the rights of adolescents and young adults. Their romantic and sexual autonomy needs greatly increased
recognition in India.
Q. 131 “Minimising the prosecution of consensual romances would also leave a logjammed system with more space to pursue
actual sexual assault cases.”
In the context of the statement, which of the following strengthens the author’s opinion?
Q. 133 As per the above passage, which of the following does not correctly represent the author’s view regarding the widespread
persecution of teenage lovers under the POCSO Act?
As per a survey conducted in a college out of total students enrolled i.e., 3,000 in 2020-21, 1,700 were girls and 1,300
were boys. Data regarding students opting for various streams viz., Non-Medical, Medical, Commerce, Arts and Fine
Arts showed that 25% of the enrolled students opted non-medical and the percentage of girls in Non-Medical was 30%
of the total number of girls; 15% of the total students opted for medical and the percentage of girls who opted Medical
was 18% of the total number of girls, 25% of the total students opted Arts but the percentage of girls who opted for Arts
was 15% of the total number of girls; 16% of the total students opted Commerce and the percentage of girls who opted
Commerce was 17% of the total number of girls, and; 19% of the total students opted Fine Arts and the percentage of
girls who opted Fine Arts was 20% of the total number of girls.
Q. 136 What is the ratio among boys and girls for Non-Medical?
Q. 140 Girls have outnumbered boys in Fine Arts. How many girls in Fine Arts are more than the boys, as a percentage of total
number of boys in Fine Arts?
An Indian company, having its registered office at Gurugram, is engaged in manufacturing of consumer goods at Noida.
The goods manufactured by the company are sold in Indian market and exported to Europe. Company produces five
products namely ‘P’, ’Q’, ’R’, ’S’ and T. Total production of the company for the financial year 2021-22 is 3,000 tonnes
and the turnover of the company is Rs. 50 million. An analysis of the production and net revenue generation shows that
production of product ‘P’ is 21% of the total production and 18% of the turnover is attributable to product ‘P‘; production
of ‘Q’ is 16% of the total production and 17% of the turnover is attributable to ‘Q’; ‘R’ accounts tor 18% of the total
production and 20% of the turnover; ‘S’ accounts for 20% of the total production and 25% of the turnover and; ‘T’
accounts for 25% of total production and 20% of turnover.
Q. 141 What is the average selling price per tonne of all products taken together?
In an organization, the total number of employees working in various Departments viz. IT, Marketing, Purchase. HR,
Accounts and Production are 4.500. The information regarding department wise percentage of employees was collected
and also record about gender ratio of employees was prepared. 18 percent of total number of employees work in IT
department and ratio of males to females in IT department is 2 : 1. In Marketing, ratio of males to females is 2 : 3 and
number of employees engaged in marketing is 20% of the total employment. 12% of the total numbers of workers are
running the HR department and the ratio of males to females in this department is 5 : 1. The fraction of male to females
in production department is 3 : 2 and total number of persons employed in this department is 15% of the total workforce.
The number of persons occupied in purchase and accounts department is 24% and 11% respectively of the total number
of workers. Gender Ratio (Ratio of males to females) in Purchase department is 1 : 1 and in Accounts is 1 : 2.
Q. 146 What is the ratio of number of males in Marketing Department to the number of males in HR department?