English

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

I. Wesley Hohfeld, a Harvard law professor in the early part of the 20th Century, developed an analytical framework for understanding interests in property. Hohfeld’s eight terms are arranged in two tables of ‘correlatives’ and ‘opposites’ that structure the internal relationships among the different fundamental legal rights.

Jural Opposites:


A privilege is the opposite of a duty; a no-right is the opposite of a right. A disability is the opposite of a power; an immunity is the opposite of a liability.
Jural Correlatives:


“Correlatives” signifies that these interests exist on opposing sides of a pair of persons involved in a legal relationship. If someone has a right, it exists with respect to someone else who has a duty. If someone has a privilege, it exists with respect to someone else who has no-right. If someone has a power, it exists with respect to someone else who has a liability. If someone has an immunity, it exists with respect to someone else who has a disability.
A right can be enforced by a lawsuit against the person who has the correlative duty. A privilege negates that right and duty, and typically would be asserted as an affirmative defense in the lawsuit. A power is the capacity to create or change a legal relationship. For example, when someone makes an offer of a contract, that gives the offeree the power to create a contract by accepting the offer (or not). If the power to create the contract is exercised, then both parties have rights and duties with respect to each other. Courts have power, only if plaintiffs or prosecutors exercise their power to commence a lawsuit.
Sovereign states are immune because courts lack power over them, in which case courts are said to have a disability with respect to sovereigns. If I “own” property it means that I have various rights with respect to the thing constituting my property–the “bundle” of sticks or rights. I probably have the right to exclude and everyone else in the world has a correlative duty not to use my property. Some people may have a privilege, however, as to fly over it. I also have power with respect to my property because I can create rights in others, as by transferring some or all of the property to them, as by creating an easement, which gives the grantee certain rights vis-a-vis others and certain rights and privileges vis-a-vis me.

Q. 1 The text is an example of a passage that is

Q. 2 Select the words from the text that correctly substitutes the underlined words in the following sentence:
She gained exemption from the accountability of paying excessive maintenance, when the apartment owner changed.

Q. 3 Which option includes a foreign word used in the English language from the text?

Q. 4 Select the option that can be used as a title from the text.

Q. 5 Select the option that includes information that is an appropriate fit into the passage.

Q. 6 If X has a right vis-a-vis everyone else, and Y has a privilege vis-a-vis X, then X has a ____ vis-a-vis Y.

Q. 7 X and Y enter into a contract that provides as follows: “The quantum and time of payment, if any, shall be determined by A on the basis of the parties’ performance of their obligations under this contract.” Here, A has _____ vis-a-vis X and Y.

Q. 8 Every person can travel on any road, unless it is blocked by a person who owns that road. Every person has ____ vis-a-vis the owner of the road.

Q. 9 In the facts of the question above, the owner of the road has _____ vis-a-vis- everyone else.

Q. 10 If A has a right to claim damages from B, then B has _____ to pay damages to A.

Q. 11 The owner of land can lease the property to any other person. Under that lease, the owner can allow sub-leasing. The owner of the land has _____ vis-a-vis the property.

Q. 12 If X infringes Y’s copyright, Y can sue X. Y has _____ vis-a-vis X.

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

II. The compass is one of the oldest navigational tools we have. Since mankind began to understand more about navigation, compasses have been crucial to the achievement of major feats such as the first transoceanic voyages and the circumnavigation of the globe. None of this would have been possible without the aid of the compass in performing navigation calculations over long distances.
Early explorers had to use local landmarks and the stars to navigate. This made it very difficult to travel to far or unknown destinations. Compasses were one of the key breakthroughs that made such voyages possible. So how exactly does a compass work?
A compass works by detecting and responding to the Earth’s natural magnetic fields. The Earth has an iron core that is part liquid and part solid crystal, due to gravitational pressure. It is believed that movement in the liquid outer core is what produces the Earth’s magnetic field. Like all such fields, the Earth’s magnetic field has two poles - North and South. These magnetic poles are slightly off from the Earth’s axis of rotation, which is used as the basis of the geographic poles - however the magnetic and geographic poles are close enough to allow a compass to serve as a valuable navigation tool, especially when adjustments are made for the polar differences - such adjustments being referred to as declination. In September 2019, for the first time in over 360 years, compasses at Greenwich pointed true north. Most of the time, however, compasses don’t actually point precisely towards the North Pole. True north is the direction that points directly towards the geographic North Pole. This is a fixed point on the Earth’s globe. Magnetic north is quite different: it is the direction that a compass needle points to as it aligns with the Earth’s magnetic field.
The magnetic North Pole shifts and changes over time in response to changes in the Earth’s magnetic core: it isn’t a fixed point.
This difference between true North and the North heading on a compass forms an angle, referred to as declination. Declination varies from place to place because the Earth’s magnetic field is not uniform – it dips and undulates.

Q. 13 Select the option that corresponds to a ‘feat’.

Q. 14 The writer refers to the compass as a “key” breakthrough, to highlight its _____.

Q. 15 Select the option that can be used, both as a noun as well as a verb, in the given form.

Q. 16 Identify the meaning of the adjective in the given line from the text.
‘...... compasses at Greenwich pointed true north.’

Q. 17 Which action suitably corresponds with ‘undulates’?

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

II. The compass is one of the oldest navigational tools we have. Since mankind began to understand more about navigation, compasses have been crucial to the achievement of major feats such as the first transoceanic voyages and the circumnavigation of the globe. None of this would have been possible without the aid of the compass in performing navigation calculations over long distances.
Early explorers had to use local landmarks and the stars to navigate. This made it very difficult to travel to far or unknown destinations. Compasses were one of the key breakthroughs that made such voyages possible. So how exactly does a compass work?
A compass works by detecting and responding to the Earth’s natural magnetic fields. The Earth has an iron core that is part liquid and part solid crystal, due to gravitational pressure. It is believed that movement in the liquid outer core is what produces the Earth’s magnetic field. Like all such fields, the Earth’s magnetic field has two poles - North and South. These magnetic poles are slightly off from the Earth’s axis of rotation, which is used as the basis of the geographic poles - however the magnetic and geographic poles are close enough to allow a compass to serve as a valuable navigation tool, especially when adjustments are made for the polar differences - such adjustments being referred to as declination. In September 2019, for the first time in over 360 years, compasses at Greenwich pointed true north. Most of the time, however, compasses don’t actually point precisely towards the North Pole. True north is the direction that points directly towards the geographic North Pole. This is a fixed point on the Earth’s globe. Magnetic north is quite different: it is the direction that a compass needle points to as it aligns with the Earth’s magnetic field.
The magnetic North Pole shifts and changes over time in response to changes in the Earth’s magnetic core: it isn’t a fixed point.
This difference between true North and the North heading on a compass forms an angle, referred to as declination. Declination varies from place to place because the Earth’s magnetic field is not uniform – it dips and undulates.

For Questions 18-21:
5 towers made by civilisation X were declared to be protected heritage building. Uniquely, four of them are placed geographically such that they are the vertices of a square. The fifth is placed at the point of intersection of the two diagonals of the square. Let the towers be named A, B, C, D and E. The following information is given to you about the five towers:
i. C, A and B are in a straight line (in no particular order) that runs from south-east to north-west.
ii. If one looks directly east from B, no tower is visible. This is not true for A and D.
iii. If one looks directly north from D, a tower is visible.

Q. 18 Based on the above information, which tower is in the centre?

Q. 19 If one seeks to travel to D from A, one has to go

Q. 20 If one seeks to travel to B from A, one has to qo

Q. 21 At sunset, A’s shadow points ______

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

II. The compass is one of the oldest navigational tools we have. Since mankind began to understand more about navigation, compasses have been crucial to the achievement of major feats such as the first transoceanic voyages and the circumnavigation of the globe. None of this would have been possible without the aid of the compass in performing navigation calculations over long distances.
Early explorers had to use local landmarks and the stars to navigate. This made it very difficult to travel to far or unknown destinations. Compasses were one of the key breakthroughs that made such voyages possible. So how exactly does a compass work?
A compass works by detecting and responding to the Earth’s natural magnetic fields. The Earth has an iron core that is part liquid and part solid crystal, due to gravitational pressure. It is believed that movement in the liquid outer core is what produces the Earth’s magnetic field. Like all such fields, the Earth’s magnetic field has two poles - North and South. These magnetic poles are slightly off from the Earth’s axis of rotation, which is used as the basis of the geographic poles - however the magnetic and geographic poles are close enough to allow a compass to serve as a valuable navigation tool, especially when adjustments are made for the polar differences - such adjustments being referred to as declination. In September 2019, for the first time in over 360 years, compasses at Greenwich pointed true north. Most of the time, however, compasses don’t actually point precisely towards the North Pole. True north is the direction that points directly towards the geographic North Pole. This is a fixed point on the Earth’s globe. Magnetic north is quite different: it is the direction that a compass needle points to as it aligns with the Earth’s magnetic field.
The magnetic North Pole shifts and changes over time in response to changes in the Earth’s magnetic core: it isn’t a fixed point.
This difference between true North and the North heading on a compass forms an angle, referred to as declination. Declination varies from place to place because the Earth’s magnetic field is not uniform – it dips and undulates.

Q. 22 A compass (circular in shape) consists of two parts: a magnetic needle that points towards the magnetic north, and a circular piece of paper with directions written on it. If, somehow, the piece of paper rotates a quarter-circle counter-clockwise, which geographic direction does needle point towards?

Q. 23 A is holding a compass at the time of sunrise. He points it towards the direction of the sunrise and sees that it reads “SW”. This means that the compass has rotated _____

Q. 24 In the facts of the question above, what actual direction is “NW” on the compass pointing towards?

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

III. Aristotle, an ancient philosopher, was one of the first to discuss syllogisms. In Prior Analytics, published around 350 BCE, Aristotle outlined the basic form of syllogism which represented the earliest branch of formal logic. For Aristotle, logic revolved around deduction: “speech in which certain things having been supposed something different from those supposed results of necessity because of their being so.”
If that sounds confusing – that’s ancient philosophy for you! Let’s break it down. “The things that have been supposed” are what we now call “premises”. “What results necessarily” from those premises being true is a conclusion.
To Aristotle, if an argument was valid, it would be impossible for premises X and Y to be true and for conclusion Z to be false. Aristotle named this method of proving validity “reductio ad impossibile”: a syllogism is valid when the denial of the conclusion but acceptance of the premises would lead to a contradiction.
Aristotle divided syllogistic propositions into four different categories: universal affirmative, particular affirmative, universal negative and particular negative.
A universal affirmative syllogistic sentence: All humans need food.
A particular affirmative syllogistic sentence: Some birds can fly.
A universal negative syllogistic sentence: No dogs are cats.
A particular negative syllogistic sentence: Not all cars have four doors.
During the rise of modern formal logic, German philosopher Gottlob Frege refined Aristotle’s syllogistic theory through the addition of noncategorical syllogisms. These are syllogisms that rely on premises and can be hypothetical, or which include disjunctions like ‘or’. The hypothetical form of syllogisms can be traced back to Stoic philosophy, but modern philosophers tend to attribute the theory to Frege. In the 19th century, British philosopher and economist John Neville Keynes also helped make non-categorical syllogisms popular.

Here’s an example of a hypothetical syllogism:
1. If it is sunny tomorrow, I can go running.
2. It is sunny.
3. Therefore, I can go running.

Here’s an example of a disjunctive syllogism:
1. Patrick studies English or Linguistics.
2. Patrick is not studying Linguistics.
3. Therefore, he is studying English.

In the Begriffsschrift (German for “Concept- Script”), he refined Aristotle’s system by developing a logical system that explained how quantifiers (words like “all” and “some”) work. His system also became the basis for modern computer science.

Q. 25 Select the appropriate option to fill the blank. In the line, ‘Aristotle outlined the basic form of syllogism...’ in paragraph 1, the writer means that Aristotle ______ the topic.

Q. 26 The writer’s use of an exclamation mark in the line ‘... that’s ancient philosophy for you!’, from paragraph 2. What is the most likely tone this indicates?

Q. 27 Select the option that is true for both (1) and (2) below, according to paragraph 3.
(1) A conclusion is the main feature of a premise.
(2) Premises need to be proven true for a conclusion to occur.

Q. 28 Select the option that substitutes the underlined word correctly in the given line. ‘These are syllogisms that rely on premises being hypothetical ....’

Q. 29 Select the option that uses a ‘quantifier’, as mentioned in the last paragraph.

Q. 30 Let the following premises be true: “If it is sunny on any given day, I can go running.”, and “It is not sunny today.” Which of the following must be true?

Q. 31 If a majority of spoons are forks, then which of the following could be true?

Q. 32 Assume that (A) a majority of blankets are sheets, (B) a majority of blankets are tablecloths, and (C) no non-blanket sheet (i.e., a sheet that is not a blanket) is a non-blanket tablecloth (i.e., a tablecloth that is not a blanket). Which of the following is true?

Q. 33 A minority of wallets are purses. A majority of wallets are perfumes. Which of the following could be true?

Q. 34 A majority of Formula 1 cars are race-cars. All race-cars drive on four wheels. All four-wheeled cars are twenty times as fast as cars that drive on any other number of wheels. Speed is the only determining factor for winning a race that involves cars. Which of the following is/are correct?

Q. 35 A minority of folders are documents. Which of the following is not true?

Q. 36 All moons are asteroids. All planets are celestial bodies. Some planets are moons. Therefore,

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

IV. During her grandfather’s reign, Elizabeth was third in the line of succession to the British throne, behind her uncle Edward and her father. Her younger and only sister Margaret was next in the line of succession. When her grandfather died in 1936 and her uncle succeeded as Edward VIII, she became second in line to the throne, after her father. Later that year, Edward abdicated without any issue (i.e., child), after his proposed marriage to divorced socialite Wallis Simpson provoked a constitutional crisis. Consequently, Elizabeth’s father became king, taking the regnal name George VI. Since Elizabeth had no brothers, she became heir presumptive. If her parents had subsequently had a son, he would have been heir apparent and above her in the line of succession, which was determined by the male-preference primogeniture (as against female-preference primogeniture or primogeniture simpliciter) in effect at the time.
George VI’s health declined during 1951, and Elizabeth frequently stood in for him at public events. When she toured Canada and visited President Harry S. Truman in Washington, D.C., in October 1951, her private secretary, Martin Charteris, carried a draft accession declaration in case of the King’s death while she was on tour. In early 1952, Elizabeth and Philip set out for a tour of Australia and New Zealand by way of the British colony of Kenya. On 6 February 1952, they had just returned to their Kenyan home, Sagana Lodge, after a night spent at Treetops Hotel, when word arrived of the death of George VI and Elizabeth’s consequent accession to the throne with immediate effect. Philip broke the news to the new queen. She chose to retain Elizabeth as her regnal name; thus she was called Elizabeth II, which offended many Scots, as she was the first Elizabeth to rule in Scotland. She was proclaimed queen throughout her realms and the royal party hastily returned to the United Kingdom. Elizabeth and Philip moved into Buckingham Palace.

Q. 37 Elizabeth’s father had to ascend the throne because Edward had to step down.
Select the correct reason he had to step down.

Q. 38 The word ‘provoked’ in the line ‘provoked a constitutional crisis’, refers to _________.

Q. 39 What can be inferred as common between the understanding of heir apparent and heir presumptive?

Q. 40 The phrasal verb ‘stood in’ is used in the line, ‘...stood in for him at public events.’ Select the option that DOES NOT display a phrasal verb.

Q. 41 Select the option that negates the given opinion, based on the textual information.
The Scots objected to Elizabeth’s accession.

Q. 42 Which of the following is true for Queen Elizabeth in the period described in the first sentence of the passage, “During her grandfather’s reign, Elizabeth was third in the line of succession to the British throne, behind her uncle Edward and her father.”?

Q. 43 If, during the reign of George VI, George VI and his queen-consort had given birth to a boy, then : [for the purpose of this question, assume that heir presumptive and heir apparent are conceptually the same]

Q. 44 X was the reigning monarch of a country, which followed the rule of primogeniture for determining succession. The law of succession also holds that children born out of wedlock cannot be in the line of succession. Looking at a picture of the heir presumptive, he, i.e. X, said, “He is the son of my mother’s daughter.” Which of the following is correct? [for the purpose of this question, assume that heir presumptive and heir apparent are conceptually the same]

Q. 45 Which of the following can be deduced from the passage?

Q. 46 X and Y were married. They had three children: P, Q and R (in increasing order of ages). P had three children with her husband Q : A, B and C (in increasing order of ages). R had one child with her husband W : J. A, B, C and J do not have any children of their own. Which of the following is the correct line of succession after the death of X (the current monarch) assuming that the law regulating succession follows the rule of primogeniture?

Q. 47 Viserys is the current monarch of a country that follows the law of primogeniture. The laws of the country also prevent children born out of wedlock from being in the line of succession. Viserys’ family is as follows: his brother Daemon, his daughter Rhaenyra from his marriage with Aemma (who died while giving birth to a stillborn child, Baelon), his sons Aegon and Aemond, and his daughter Halaena (the three of them being born from his marriage with Alicent, who is currently the queen--consort). Rhaenyra, Aegon, Aemond and Halaena are unmarried and do not have any children. Alicent wants to make her eldest son, Aegon, the heir presumptive. Which of the following options would help her succeed in her plan? [for the purpose of this question, assume that heir presumptive and heir apparent are conceptually the same]

Q. 48 In the facts of the question above, assume that Rhaenyra had the following children out of wedlock : Jacaerys, Lucerys and Joffrey (in decreasing order of ages). None of them have any children of their own. What would be the place of Daemon in the line of succession during Viserys’ lifetime?

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

V. Mining cryptocurrency was a great way to use your best graphics card to make a little money on the side. Being able to use an idle GPU to crunch numbers when not playing games allows you to make the most of the performance available. Unfortunately, since we originally created this guide, the crypto markets have crashed and Ethereum has moved to a proof of stake.
While it’s not as easy to make a tidy earning with your GPU mining cryptocurrencies as before, there may be some other coins that may be worth it if you’re mindful of energy use and initial cost. The absolute best gaming graphics card does not equal the best value and returns for mining using your PC. We’ve got a recommendation for everyone here.
What is the best GPU for crypto mining?
Choosing the best graphics card for crypto mining Choosing the best graphics card for crypto mining isn’t as simple as picking the absolute most expensive card you can locate and calling it a day. There are various factors to consider when shopping around for a new GPU to (hopefully) make some money with. The most important factor of any GPU for crypto mining is efficiency – you want a high hash rate for as little electricity as possible.
Take our highest recommendation here, for example. It’s the NVIDIA GeForce 3060 Ti, an incredible GPU for gaming, but it’s also excellent for crypto mining. It won’t win awards for the highest hash rate, but for the more affordable price, it’ll get you up and running without issue. If you wanted something a little cheaper without sacrificing too much in performance, the NVIDIA GeForce RTX 2070 is your guy.
But there are countless other GPUs that are worth considering and not only from NVIDIA. The AMD Radeon RX 5700 XT is our favorite GPU for value, offering an impressive hash rate for the asking price. Then there’s the AMD Radeon RX 580, which is perfect for those on a tight budget who wish to save a few Bitcoins or Ethereum to weather a financial storm.
You don’t have to spend much at all to make money mining cryptocurrency. So long as the hash rate will pull in coins for you to sell and make enough to cover electricity costs, you’re already in the green. Once you factor in a few months to pay off the GPU, you’re in profit — and that’s not taking into account the resale value of the card itself.
When deciding on a GPU for crypto mining, you need to bear in mind a few factors. Do you want to pay more upfront now and potentially earn higher returns? Or do you feel as though the mining scene will dissipate slightly with lower returns and wish to spend only a small amount on a GPU to make a little extra on the side?
The cryptocurrency market is a financial one, and that means it’s extremely susceptible to media coverage and human emotion. Take the damning environmental reports about Bitcoin that coincided with the Chinese crackdown to send the price spiraling. If you’re about to spend $2,000 on a GPU to mine cryptocurrencies, you best be sure you can at least recuperate the initial purchase cost.
This is why we’re not recommending only the most powerful (and expensive) GPUs available today. That doesn’t make sense in the current climate, but it’s also outright bad advice for those new to the wonderful world of mining digital currency. Unlike gaming, where only the best GPU you can afford will do, choosing one for crypto mining is a little more challenging.
What about all other GPUs for crypto mining?
There are plenty of GPUs out there, and many of them offer considerably high hashrates, making them ideal for cryptocurrency mining. We couldn’t include every graphics card here, and so this collection only includes handpicked recommendations that cover multiple price ranges.
So long as the GPU you consider buying will make more money than the electrical cost to run the PC, you’re good to go. Leave it running for a few months, and you’ll have accumulated enough to pay off the card. You could stop here and sell the card to recuperate some of the initial cost or continue with passive income.

Q. 49 Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
The writer uses the word ‘crunch numbers’ in the first paragraph to communicate that it involves __________.

Q. 50 Select the option that correctly reflects what the idiom in the given sentence means.
‘Choosing the best graphics card isn’t as simple as picking the absolute most expensive card, you can locate and calling it a day.’

Q. 51 Select the option that displays what aspect the text titled ‘What is best GPU for crypto mining’ DOES NOT present.
i. information
ii. prediction
iii. suggestion
iv. precaution
v. introduction

Q. 52 What is the writer’s most likely intent of using question headings in this text?

Q. 53 Select the option that displays words similar in meaning to ‘recuperate’, from the last line of the text.

Q. 54 On the basis of this article, a rational person decided that X was a better GPU for crypto mining than Y. He found that the initial cost of X was much lower than Y. It therefore follows that:

Q. 55 If total cost of mining N bitcoins using GPU X was lower than the total cost of mining the same number of bitcoins using GPU Y, then it follows that:

Q. 56 What is the relationship between profits made using crypto-mining and hashrates?

Q. 57 Assuming that the cost price and hashrates of two GPUs are identical, which of the following statements is true?

Q. 58 GPUs are made of infinitesimally small chips made out of semiconductors. Due to the pandemic, companies manufacturing these chips had to shut down. Assuming that the prices of cryptocurrencies and electricity remained constant, this would lead to
i. Higher cost prices of GPUs
ii. Lower profits made by people mining cryptocurrency
iii. Lesser hashrates of GPUs
iv. Losses for people mining cryptocurrency

Q. 59 A certain extremely expensive GPU has the best hashrates among all GPUs. This GPU would

Q. 60 A goes to a shop. At the shop are two salesmen – X and Y. X always says the truth. Y always speaks falsehoods.
X and Y are aware of each other’s tendencies. A does not know which salesman is X and which salesman is Y. Both salesmen say to A, “If you asked the other salesman, he would tell you that GPU G1 is better than GPU G2.” What can be said about G1 and G2?

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

VI. Who are your first cousins?
Family members who are considered first cousins share grandparents with you. If your mom or dad have siblings, and those siblings have children, the kids are your first cousins! To your mom and dad, they’re nephews and nieces, but to you, they’re first cousins. Often these are the relatives people mean when they say, “she’s my cousin.” If they’re not adopted, you share about 1/8 of your DNA with your first cousins!
So what are second cousins?
Second cousins hav e the same greatgrandparents as you. Think of it this way: your mom’s first cousin’s child is your second cousin. Or, your grandpa’s brother’s grandchild (your dad’s aunt’s grandchild) is your second cousin. You’re in the same generation, they’re just not as closely related.
What about a second cousin once removed?
A cousin once removed means they’re from the generation immediately above or below you. So your first cousin once removed would be your first cousin’s child or your parent’s first cousin. Your second cousin once removed is your second cousin’s child or your parent’s second cousin.
So a cousin twice removed is...?
“Twice removed means that there’s a two generation gap: this cousin is from either your grandparents’ generation, or your grandchild’s generation. So your first cousin twice removed would be your grandparent’s first cousin or your first cousin’s grandchild. Your second cousin twice removed is your second cousin’s grandchild or your grandparents’ second cousin.
And what about third cousins?
Third cousins share the same great-greatgrandparents! Your third cousin is your mom’s great aunt’s great-grandkid. OK, that’s a little confusing. How about this: your great-greatuncle’s great-grandchild is your third cousin. You might need another look at the chart. Or you can just call them “cousin.”
There’s a knack to remember which cousin is which. First, second, and third cousins (and so on unto infinity cousins) are an equal number of generations removed from the common ancestor. First cousins are both the second generation removed from their shared grandparents. Second cousins are the third generation removed from shared great-grandparents. So: cousin plus one is the number of generations back.
So “grand” doesn’t mean cousins?
The word “grand” means that there’s a twogeneration gap between the people: your brother’s grandchild is your grand-niece, and your mom’s father is your grandfather. There is an exception : Your parents’ sibling is your aunt or uncle, but your parents’ aunt or uncle is usually referred to as a great-aunt or -uncle, despite the twogeneration gap rule. Grand-aunt just sounds a bit weird.
But “great” usually goes with “grand” ?
The use of “great” is usually paired with grand, and it means that there is a three-generation gap between you and your relative. Your niece’s grandchild is your great-grandniece or -nephew, and your grandkid’s kid is your great-grandchild! Of course, there’s another exception for aunts and uncles: Your mom’s uncle is your great-uncle, but your mom’s great-uncle is your great-greatuncle.

Q. 61 What does the writer convey via the use of exclamation marks in the first paragraph of the text?

Q. 62 Which aspect of the text indicates that the writer is engaging with the reader?

Q. 63 In the text titled, ‘And what about third cousins?’, what does the word ‘chart’ allude to?

Q. 64 The confusing relationships in the text can be best applied to __________.

Q. 65 Select the appropriate option to fill the blank. When the writer offers a ‘knack’ to remember which cousin in which, she recognises the fact that the information can be ____________ will be welcome.

Q. 66 Talking about the woman in a picture, X says, “Oh, I do miss my great-aunt! Doesn’t she look awesome in this picture? You know, her daughter and my mother taught me how to play cricket.” Which of the following assumptions would need to be made to determine that the woman in the picture was X’s great-aunt on the maternal side?

Q. 67 X’s grandson’s paternal grandson’s sister’s father’s father’s father is X’s

Q. 68 X and Y are sisters. A is X’s grandson’s niece. Y is A’s

Q. 69 Who among the following would be X’s second cousin, once removed ?

Q. 70 X is A’s first cousin. Y is X’S first cousin. Z is Y’s first cousin. What is the closest relationship possible between X and Z?

Q. 71 Who is the common ancestor between X and Y, who is X’s first cousin twice removed?

Q. 72 X’s father’s aunt is X’s

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

VII. Primogeniture
All titles are inherited by the oldest eligible child. Note that a dead child’s progeny takes precedence over younger siblings. If no eligible descendants exist, the ruler’s oldest eligible sibling is preferred. If lateral branches provide no candidate, the line of succession moves up to the primary parent* and repeats the aforementioned steps.
*the father if patrilineal marriage, the mother if matrilineal marriage
Ultimogeniture
All titles are inherited by the youngest eligible child. Note that a dead child’s progeny takes precedence over older siblings. If no eligible descendants exist, the ruler’s youngest eligible sibling is preferred. If lateral branches provide no candidate, the line of succession moves up to the primary parent* and repeats the aforementioned steps.
*the father if patrilineal marriage, the mother if matrilineal marriage
House seniority
All titles are inherited by the oldest eligible house member.
Note: The above rules of inheritance can take the following forms; gender-neutral; male preference, where younger men take precedence over older women; and vice versa for female preference.
Disowning
If a person is validly disowned, his/ her position in the line of succession ceases to exist. Only a person who has become a ruler in accordance with any of the rules of succession mentioned above can disown a person in the line of succession. A person in the line of succession may also choose to adopt monkhood, which automatically results in his/her permanent removal from the line of succession.

Q. 73 Select the option that completes the following correctly.
Precedence: priority : : __________________

Q. 74 Select the option that can be the most suitable introductory line to this text.

Q. 75 Select the option that correctly reflects in the given part of the line. “If lateral branches provide no candidates...”

Q. 76 Select the option that substitutes the underlined words in the given sentence without changing its meaning.
‘If a person is validly (1) disowned, his/her position in the line of succession ceases (2) to exist.’

Q. 77 Monkhood results in a permanent removal from the line of succession because of its feature of ___________.

Q. 78 A ruler’s first-born son, at the moment of his birth, is first in the line of succession.
This statement is _______________

Q. 79 A ruler’s last-born son, at the moment of his birth, is first in the line of succession.
This statement is _________

Q. 80 Different rules of inheritance can never create situations where the same person is first in the line of succession. This statement is _______________

Q. 81 Y is the youngest child of X, the current ruler, who has 5 other children (each of them older than Y). Y is first in the line of succession. Which of the following inferences can be drawn for certain about their realm from the above two statements?

Q. 82 Which of the following scenarios is/are possible?

Q. 83 X is the ruler of a realm. X has three younger sisters : W, Y and Z (in increasing order of ages). X is married to A, with whom he has three sons (B, C and D (in increasing order of ages)) and two daughters (E and F (in increasing order of ages)). F is younger than B. W is older than D. E is married to P and has two children : Q and R (in increasing order of ages). E dies. Stricken by grief after E’s death, X dies. Assuming the realm follows gender-neutral ultimogeniture, the throne passes to ___________

Q. 84 In the facts of the question above, if the realm followed the rule of house seniority, the throne would pass to _______________

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

VIII. If you have ever watched a Grand Prix, you may have asked yourself, ‘how do Formula One cars generate downforce?’
Motorsports is all about speed. Being the fastest around will mean victory. But there is a limit to how fast one can travel on the ground without the car taking off. For attaining great speeds a car needs to remain firmly on the ground and have a good grip on the racing track. This means that all cars need to generate a downward force sufficient enough to keep them firmly on the ground for the speed that they intend to attain.
One way to remain on the ground at great speeds is to increase the weight of the car. But an increased weight will need more power to drive the car and make the handling of the car difficult.
The alternative to this is to create the required force to stay grounded. Downforce can be generated from the air flowing around the car and will increase as the speed of the car increases.
The wings of an aeroplane help it to take off in the air at a specified speed. The same wing, if installed inverted on a car can make the car stay firmly on the ground. Just like in an aeroplane, as the speed of the car increases, the wings will press the car more firmly on the ground, thereby making handling of the car through twists and turns easier at high speed. This force that presses the car to the ground is called downforce.
Aerodynamic downforce plays an important role in the performance of Formula One cars, DTM, Indy cars and touring cars. Good grip on the racing track is equally important as the power generated by a racing car engine. Good ground adhesion gives the car stability and better cornering ability. Hence a racing car must generate a ground force equal to several times its weight.
Modern Formula One cars can generate as much as 5G downforce. That means, at full speed, the effective weight pressing down on the track will be 5 times the weight of the car. Almost all the surfaces of a Formula One car are engineered to produce downforce. The downforce by the front portion of the car has to be balanced by the downforce produced by the rear portion.
While the downforce on either side of the car can be balanced by symmetry, the downforce between the front and the rear cannot. This downforce has to be balanced by design. Most of the downforce in Formula One cars is produced by the wings and by diffusers. The downforce required by the car for ultimate performance will vary from track to track and on the conditions of the track.
While too much front downforce could lead to understeer, too much downforce generated by the rear portion could lead to oversteer. The balancing of the downforce between the front and the rear can be done by careful designing of the body parts of the car. The balancing act of the downforce also comes with an increased drag on the car.

Q. 85 Select the option that correctly sorts facts (F) and opinions (O).
i. Grand Prix is worth watching.
ii. Formula One cars are beautifully designed unlike other types of cars.

Q. 86 Select the idiomatic expression that addresses the given text, most appropriately.

Q. 87 What type of text could the given piece, best be categorised under ?

Q. 88 In the line, ‘The alternative to this is to create the required force to stay grounded.’, what is the nature of meaning for ‘staying grounded’, that the writer DOES NOT refer to ?

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option as a concluding remark for the given text.

Q. 90 If the orientation of the wings in a Formula One car were reversed (and all other things remain equal), the effective weight pressing down on the track would be X times the weight of the car. X is

Q. 91 A super car has a greater acceleration and topspeed compared to a Formula One car, but does not have wings that generate even half the downforce as compared to a Formula One car. The super car would still handily lose a race against a Formula one car. Which among the following statements is correct the race track ?

Q. 92 Without downforce-generating apparatus in a Formula One car, the drivers would ______

Q. 93 Assume that an object enters into free-fall if the force attracting it towards the earth is less than the force pushing it away from the earth. Further assume that all objects on earth are pushed away from it with a force equal to 1G. A Formula One car, therefore, _____?

Q. 94 Downforce generated by the wings of a Formula One car creates force towards the floor of the car thereby keeping the floor of the car closer to the surface it is being driven on. As mentioned in the passage, this downforce can be around 5 times the gravitational force exerted by the earth on the car. This implies that _____

Q. 95 In a race among ten drivers (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J, who started in this order, i.e. A started 1st and J started 10th), D, E and F made 2, 2, and 5 overtakes respectively. No one else made overtakes. What are the new respective positions of D, E and F?

Q. 96 How many overtakes does a person starting 10th in a race need to make to get to 1st position, assuming no other person makes any overtakes?

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

IX. What is phishing?
Phishing is one of the easiest forms of cyberattack for criminals to carry out, and one of the easiest to fall for. It’s also one that can provide everything hackers need to ransack their targets’ personal and work accounts.
Usually carried out over email - although the phishing scam has now spread beyond suspicious emails to phone calls (so-called ‘vishing’) social media, messaging services (aka ‘smishing’) and apps - a basic phishing attack attempts to trick the target into doing what the scammer wants. That might be handing over passwords to make it easier to hack a company, or altering bank details so that payments go to fraudsters instead of the correct account.
Phishing is also a popular method for cyber attackers to deliver malware, by encouraging victims to download a document or visit a link that will secretly install the malicious payload in attacks that could be distributing trojan malware, ransomware or all manner of damaging and disruptive attacks. The aim and the precise mechanics of the scams vary : for example, victims might be tricked into clicking a link through to a fake web page with the aim of persuading the user to enter personal information - it’s estimated that an average of 1.4 million of these websites are created every month.
More complex phishing schemes can involve a long game, with hackers using fake social media profiles, emails and more to build up a rapport with the victim over months or even years in cases where specific individuals are targeted for data that they would only ever hand over to people they trust.
That data can range from personal or corporate email address and password, to financial data such as credit card details or online banking credentials or even personal data such as date of birth, address and a social security number.
How does a phishing attack work?
A basic phishing attack attempts to trick a user into entering personal details or other confidential information, and email is the most common method of performing these attacks.
The sheer number of emails sent every single day means that it’s an obvious attack vector for cyber criminals. It’s estimated that 3.7 billion people send around 269 billion emails every single day. Researchers at Symantec suggest that almost one in every 2,000 of these emails is a phishing email, meaning around 135 million phishing attacks are attempted every day.
Most people simply don’t have the time to carefully analyse every message that lands in their inbox - and it’s this that phishers look to exploit in a number of ways.
Scams vary in their targets - some are aiming at unwary consumers. Here, their email subject line will be designed to catch the victim’s eye - common phishing campaign techniques include offers of prizes won in fake competitions such as lotteries or contests by retailers offering a ‘winning voucher’
In this example, in order to ‘win’ the prize, the victims are asked to enter their details such as name, date of birth, address and bank details in order to claim. Obviously, there’s no prize and all they’ve done is put their personal details into the hands of hackers.

Q. 97 Select the option that correctly completes the following.
Doctors : cardiologist :: __________

Q. 98 Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
This text is most likely to be published as a __________

Q. 99 Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
The purpose of the prolonged phishing game is to __________ .

Q. 100 What about the victims often works favourably for phishers using emails ?

Q. 101 Replace the underlined word with its correct meaning from the given options. ‘Phishers scam people.’

Q. 102 Which of the following logical relations is/are correct?

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

IX. What is phishing?
Phishing is one of the easiest forms of cyberattack for criminals to carry out, and one of the easiest to fall for. It’s also one that can provide everything hackers need to ransack their targets’ personal and work accounts.
Usually carried out over email - although the phishing scam has now spread beyond suspicious emails to phone calls (so-called ‘vishing’) social media, messaging services (aka ‘smishing’) and apps - a basic phishing attack attempts to trick the target into doing what the scammer wants. That might be handing over passwords to make it easier to hack a company, or altering bank details so that payments go to fraudsters instead of the correct account.
Phishing is also a popular method for cyber attackers to deliver malware, by encouraging victims to download a document or visit a link that will secretly install the malicious payload in attacks that could be distributing trojan malware, ransomware or all manner of damaging and disruptive attacks. The aim and the precise mechanics of the scams vary : for example, victims might be tricked into clicking a link through to a fake web page with the aim of persuading the user to enter personal information - it’s estimated that an average of 1.4 million of these websites are created every month.
More complex phishing schemes can involve a long game, with hackers using fake social media profiles, emails and more to build up a rapport with the victim over months or even years in cases where specific individuals are targeted for data that they would only ever hand over to people they trust.
That data can range from personal or corporate email address and password, to financial data such as credit card details or online banking credentials or even personal data such as date of birth, address and a social security number.
How does a phishing attack work?
A basic phishing attack attempts to trick a user into entering personal details or other confidential information, and email is the most common method of performing these attacks.
The sheer number of emails sent every single day means that it’s an obvious attack vector for cyber criminals. It’s estimated that 3.7 billion people send around 269 billion emails every single day. Researchers at Symantec suggest that almost one in every 2,000 of these emails is a phishing email, meaning around 135 million phishing attacks are attempted every day.
Most people simply don’t have the time to carefully analyse every message that lands in their inbox - and it’s this that phishers look to exploit in a number of ways.
Scams vary in their targets - some are aiming at unwary consumers. Here, their email subject line will be designed to catch the victim’s eye - common phishing campaign techniques include offers of prizes won in fake competitions such as lotteries or contests by retailers offering a ‘winning voucher’
In this example, in order to ‘win’ the prize, the victims are asked to enter their details such as name, date of birth, address and bank details in order to claim. Obviously, there’s no prize and all they’ve done is put their personal details into the hands of hackers.

For Questions 103-108:
A company has designed a bot to filter scam emails. The method used by the filter is to convert emails to a code using a proprietary software, and then to check the code to see if it meets the following conditions. If the converted code meets each of the said conditions, then it is filtered out as scam.
i The code should not contain special characters (i.e. non-alphanumeric characters)
ii The code should not contain any character appearing twice consecutively iii. The code should not contain any character appearing thrice consecutively
iv. The code should not contain any string that contains a numeric character followed by an alphabetical character

Q. 103 Which of the following emails (converted to code) is scam according to the filter?

Q. 104 Which of the following emails (converted to code) is scam according to the filter?

Q. 105 Which of the following statements is correct about the conditions used in the filter?

Q. 106 Can this bot be used to filter phishing emails?

Q. 107 A scammer has figured out a way to manipulate the working of the bot. However, he has not yet figured out the manner in which the bot categorizes email as scam or not-scam. The loophole works by using a certain “macro” in an email. The “macro” transforms the code of the email into a new code using the following sequential steps: first, letters t – z are transformed into numbers 1 – 7, respectively; second, numbers 1 – 9 are transformed into letters a – i, respectively; and third, number 0 is transformed into the letter j. Which of the following can be codes generated by the “macro”?

Q. 108 The company that created the bot reverseengineered the scheme of the scammer. The company wants to use the following steps to transform the “macro”-generated code into the original code.
i. Transform numbers 1 – 7 to letters t – z, respectively
ii. Transform letters a – i to numbers 1 – 9, respectively
iii. Transform letter j to number 0
What is the order in which these steps should be undertaken to fulfil the company’s aim?

Directions: I to X: Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that accurately and completely answer the question.

X. Great Pacific Garbage Patch, a zone in the Pacific Ocean between Hawaii and California that has a high concentration of plastic waste. The extent of the patch has been compared to the U.S. State of Texas or Alaska or even to the country of Afghanistan.
Garbage that reaches the ocean from the west coast of the United States and from the east coast of Japan is carried by currents – including the California Current, the North Equatorial Current, the North Pacific Current, and the Kuroshio – into the North Pacific subtropical gyre, the clockwise rotation of which draws in and traps solid matter such as plastics. Some 80 percent of the plastics in the garbage patch come from the land. It takes years for debris to travel from the coasts to the gyre, and as it is carried along, photodegradation causes the plastics to break down into tiny, nearly invisible bits. While there are some larger objects that come from ships and offshore oil rigs, the garbage patch could more accurately be described as a soup of microplastics. The dimensions and depth of the patch are continuously changing. Scientists had been aware of the growing problem of plastic debris in the world’s oceans since the late 1980s. However, the Great Pacific Garbage Patch came to public attention only after 1997, when yachtsman Charles Moore, returning home after participating in the biennial Transpacific Race, chose a route that took him through the North Pacific subtropical gyre. He found himself traversing a sea of plastics When he returned to the area the following year, he discovered that the Patch had grown in both extent and density. Moore began making speeches and writing articles – notably a 2003 essay in Natural History magazine – and he changed the mission of the Algalita Research Foundation, which he had founded in 1994 to improve water quality along California’s coast. The organization now focuses on studying and publicizing the problem of plastics in oceans, in particular in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch. A 2006 series of articles in the Los Angeles Times about the garbage patch won a Pulitzer Prize and raised general awareness of the problem.
ln 2015 and 2016, the Dutch-based organization Ocean Cleanup found that the density of the debris in the garbage patch was much greater than expected and that the plastics absorbed pollutants, making them poisonous to marine life. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is the best known of several such zones, others of which exist in the Atlantic and Indian oceans.

Q. 109 Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
The word ‘Great’ in the name ‘Great Pacific Garbage Patch’ alludes to the _______.

Q. 110 Which is the contextual clue that best helps us understand the meaning of ‘gyre’?

Q. 111 Select the appropriate option to fill the blank. The ‘photo’ in photodegradation points to the role of _____ in the degradation of the plastic.

Q. 112 Which of the given literary devices does the writer use in the line, ‘He found himself traversing a sea of plastics.’?

Q. 113 Select the option that displays a title likely to belong to an article of the 2006 series.

Q. 114 Which of the following assumptions is/are necessary to conclude that plastic waste emerging from land would be the smallest in size as it accumulates in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch?

Q. 115 A researcher showed that for every thousand kilometres a piece of plastic travels through oceanic water, it breaks down into 100 pieces. Each of those pieces would then also break down into 100 more pieces upon traveling a thousand kilometres. This phenomenon is analogically equivalent to _____

Q. 116 It was found that between two pieces of plastic, the lighter one travels at twice the speed of the heavier one. If there are ten pieces of plastic (each with a different weight) that start from the same geographical location, the speed of the fastest piece would X times the speed of the slowest piece. X is

Q. 117 Theoretically, filtering out all plastics from water bodies flowing into the sea and preventing direct disposal of any plastic from land into sea would

Q. 118 A teacher wants to demonstrate the futility of Ocean Cleanup. She believes that unless plasticremoval is faster than plastic-accrual, the overall size and depth of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch would stay stagnant or may even increase. Which of the following analogies can she draw to drive home her argument?

Q. 119 From the passage, it is clear that both plastic accumulation and oceanic pollution are negatively affecting marine life. As a scientist, you conduct a series of experiments to determine the extent (if any) of their contribution to degradation of marine life. The details of the experiments and their results are below:
i. Check if plastic accumulation in sterile, nonpolluting conditions affects marine life. It turns out that marine life is negatively affected. The measurement of the effect is X units.
ii. Separately, check if any kind of pollution in some non-plastic environment affects marine life. It turns out that marine life is not affected at all.
iii. Separately, check if pollution absorbed by accumulated plastic affects marine life. It turns out that marine life is negatively affected. The measurement of the effect is 2X units.

What, if anything, can be concluded from the experiment?

Q. 120 It is found in a series of experiments that big pieces of plastic (defined as being larger than 100 cm2 in size) take T amount of time to break into halves due to photodegradation, and smaller pieces of plastic (defined as being smaller than 10 cm2 in size) take T/3 amount of time to break into halves due to photodegradation, which of the following is correct?

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Q. 121 Before adopting Riyal as its currency, Qatar’s currency was equivalent to which, foreign (to Qatar) currency?

Q. 122 As a result of air pollution and nearby sewage, the __________ is reported to be turning yellow. Built in the 17th century, it is one of the seven wonders of the world.

Q. 123 Who among the following rely on medicines to cure mental illnesses?

Q. 124 Twitter, a social media platform, was recently acquired by Elon Musk. Which of the following entities is not owned/ controlled by Elon Musk ?

Q. 125 Which of the following statements is correct about Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?

Q. 126 The first Indian to have won the All England Badminton Championship is

Q. 127 The Prime Minister of which country was in news for dancing in a ‘wild party’?

Q. 128 The present Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is

Q. 129 How many Amendments have been made to the Indian Constitution so far?

Q. 130 The Supreme Court in __________ upheld the constitutional validity of the EWS reservation.

Q. 131 Which among the following states admitted more foreign tourists in 2021 ?

Q. 132 Recently the IMF approved a loan of US$ 2.9 billion to

Q. 133 The Foreign Universities can set up their institutions in

Q. 134 The name of the privately built rocket that was launched from Sriharikota in November 2022 is

Q. 135 The Voters Day in India is celebrated on

Q. 136 Who won the Nobel Peace Prize, 2022 ?

Q. 137 In order to reduce plastic waste in India, the Indian government in July, 2022 banned ___________

Q. 138 There is a fear that certain nanoplastics would become a part of human food, thereby causing severe harm to the human body. What is the size of one nanometre?

Q. 139 X water body connects the Pacific Ocean to the Atlantic Ocean. Identify X.

Q. 140 The following Indian driver is currently participating in Formula Two series:

Q. 141 Human Rights Day is celebrated on

Q. 142 How many Youth World Titles in Chess have been won by Grand Master Praggnanandhaa?

Q. 143 The first Indian to have won a Medal in Asian Cup Table Tennis is

Q. 144 After winning Gold Medal in Olympics, Neeraj Chopra has also won the Javelin throw in

Q. 145 The first Indian to win a Medal in Olympics Badminton is

Q. 146 The new Election Commissioner who joined in November 2022 is

Q. 147 How many World Heritage sites are there in India?

Q. 148 India’s rank in the Global Hunger Index out of 121 countries is

Q. 149 The 2022 G20 Meeting was held in November 2022 in

Q. 150 The National Education Policy, 2020, excluded the following disciplines from its ambit