The AILET 2025 question paper followed the 150-question format across three sections and tested candidates on English language comprehension, current affairs, and logical reasoning within a 120-minute window. Analysing this paper is essential to understand the exam trends and difficulty level set by NLU Delhi.
Below, you can access the official AILET 2025 paper along with detailed expert solutions for clear concept understanding.
I. Direction for questions 1 to 7: Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate
answer.
The levels of dissolved oxygen in the world's ocean waters are declining precipitously. Just like humans, fish
need oxygen to survive, and so in ocean areas experiencing significant levels of oxygen scarcity, or hypoxia,
fish populations are plummeting. Although some hypoxic areas, called "dead zones," occur naturally, hypoxia
in coastal areas and inland waters is caused mainly by agricultural run-off and by discharge of industrial
wastewater. More than one hundred permanent dead zones, many covering thousands of square miles,
exist worldwide today. Since reproductive success is the most critical factor in the sustainability of any
species, the extent of this threat to marine life and genetic diversity can hardly be overstated. After several
months in hypoxic waters, female fish produce fewer eggs. Moreover, hypoxic conditions serve to alter the
normal ratio between two particular hormones manufactured during the embryonic stage when a fish's
gender is determined. During gestation and under these conditions, the mother produces more testosterone
(and less estradiol), which inhibits the development of female reproductive organs and other female
characteristics in the embryo, while promoting the development of male traits. The implications of declining
oxygen levels extend beyond individual species to entire ecosystems. Marine biodiversity is at risk as species
that cannot adapt to hypoxic conditions may face extinction, leading to a cascade of effects throughout the
food web. Predators may struggle to find adequate prey, while other marine organisms, such as coral reefs,
which rely on healthy fish populations for symbiotic relationships, may also deteriorate. The loss of biodiversity
can disrupt ecosystem services that are essential for human communities, including fisheries, tourism, and
coastal protection.
Q. 1 How does hypoxia affect female fish reproduction?
II. Direction for questions 8 to 17: Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate
answer.
The Story of Coffee
Coffee, a beloved beverage enjoyed by millions around the globe, has a rich and captivating history that
spans centuries. The story of coffee begins in the ancient highlands of Ethiopia, where, according to legend,
a goat herder named Kaldi discovered the stimulating effects of coffee beans. One day, Kaldi noticed his
goats frolicking with unusual energy after eating red berries from a certain tree. Curious, he tried the berries
himself and experienced a newfound alertness. This discovery soon spread to monasteries, where monks
used it to stay awake during long hours of prayer. From Ethiopia, coffee cultivation and consumption spread
to the Arabian Península, particularly in Yemen, where the practice of roasting coffee beans and brewing the
drink began to take shape. By the 15th century, coffee had become a popular beverage in the Islamic world,
with coffee houses known as 'qahveh khaneh' emerging as social hubs for conversation, music, and
intellectual exchange. These coffee houses became centers of culture and commerce, influencing the
spread of coffee to Turkey and beyond, eventually reaching Europe. In Europe, coffee initially faced resistance
from religious authorities who considered it a 'Muslim drink' and tried to ban it. However, its popularity persisted,
and by the 17th century, coffee houses had sprung up in major European cities, becoming important gathering
places for artists, writers, and thinkers. The stimulating effects of coffee were embraced during the Age of
Enlightenment, where it was seen as a catalyst for intellectual discussion and innovation. The journey of
coffee continued with the establishment of colonial plantations in tropical regions such as the Caribbean,
Central and South America, and Southeast Asia. These plantations fuelled the global demand for coffee,
transforming it from a regional specialty to a major commodity. The industrial revolution further accelerated
coffee production and consumption, leading to innovations in coffee brewing methods and the development
of instant coffee. In the modern era, coffee has evolved into a deeply ingrained part of daily life for people
worldwide. Its cultural significance spans from the bustling cafes of Paris to the quiet coffee farms of Colombia.
Today, coffee remains not only a popular beverage but also a symbol of social interaction, productivity, and
enjoyment. Whether sipped slowly over a conversation with friends or grabbed hastily on the way to work,
the story of coffee continues to unfold, intertwining with the histories and cultures of countless societies
across the globe.
Q. 8 What did Kaldi observe that led to the discovery of coffee?
Q. 10 Consider the following statement - Coffee originated in Ethiopia and quickly spread to the Arabian Peninsula
and beyond, where it became popular. Which of the following best supports the statement?
Q. 11 Statement 1: The introduction of coffee to the European market was met with immediate acceptance and
no resistance from religious authorities.
Statement 2: The cultural significance of coffee houses in Europe during the Age of Enlightenment extended
beyond mere beverage consumption to become venues for political and philosophical discourse.
Q. 15 Statement 1: The spread of coffee cultivation in tropical regions was solely driven by domestic consumption
in Ethiopia.
Statement 2: The global demand for coffee prompted the establishment of plantations in various parts of
the world, significantly influencing trade patterns.
III. Direction for questions 18 to 26: Read the following passage and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate
answer.
The intricate world of modern manufacturing is a web of precision and innovation, where even the tiniest
components play a pivotal role. One such element, often overlooked but crucial, is the sub-subpart. Whether
it's a carpenter fashioning a bespoke piece of furniture or an automobile engineer designing the next generation
of vehicles, the creation of sub-subparts is a fundamental process that demands meticulous craftsmanship
and cutting-edge technology. In the realm of woodworking, carpenters frequently work with sub-subparts
like dowels, screws, and hinges. These minute components may appear insignificant, yet they determine
the structural integrity and functionality of the final product. Crafting a dowel, for instance, begins with selecting
the appropriate wood species, followed by precision cutting and shaping. The result is a perfectly cylindrical,
sturdy sub-subpart that seamlessly joins two larger pieces of wood. The advent of computer-aided design
(CAD) and computer numerical control (CNC) machines has revolutionised this process, enabling carpenters
to create sub-subparts with unparalleled precision. Similarly, in the automobile industry, sub-subparts are
the unsung heroes of vehicle construction. Take, for instance, the ball bearing-a minuscule but essential
component in the wheels and transmission system. Manufacturing these precision-engineered spheres
involves intricate processes like forging, heat treatment, and precision machining. Modern techniques such
as laser cutting and 3D printing have streamlined production, ensuring that these sub-subparts meet the
demanding standards of the automotive sector. The manufacturing of sub-subparts is a testament to the
convergence of traditional craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology. Whether it's a carpenter's workshop
or a high-tech automotive assembly line, the quest for perfection in sub-subpart creation remains unwavering.
The attention to detail and precision required in these processes is a testament to the dedication of craftsmen
and engineers alike. To conclude, while sub-subparts may be small in size, their significance in various
industries cannot be overstated. Whether it's a carpenter working on a timeless piece of furniture or an
automotive engineer striving for superior performance, the manufacturing of sub-subparts is a crucial step
towards achieving excellence in craftsmanship and technology. This fusion of tradition and innovation
accentuates the essence of modern manufacturing.
Q. 18 In the intricate world of modern manufacturing, the sub-subpart can be compared to:
Q. 21 Which term best characterises the fusion of traditional craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology in the
context of creating sub-subparts, as discussed in the passage?
Q. 24 Which of the following might the author cite as an example of the fusion of traditional craftsmanship and
cutting-edge technology, as described in the passage?
Q. 25 Given the author's position on the importance of sub-subparts in carpentry, what stand would the author
probably take on the issue of using alternative materials in woodworking?
IV. Direction for questions 27 to 35: Read the excerpt from a Handicrafts Manual: 'Advanced Knitting Techniques' and answer the
following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.
THE FAIR ISLE METHOD: Fair Isle knitting is a traditional technique that involves using two or more colours
of yarn in a single row to create intricate patterns and designs. This method requires careful tension
management to ensure even stitches and prevent puckering. To begin, select your colours and cast on the
desired number of stitches. As you knit, alternate between colours every few stitches, carrying the unused
yarn along the back of the work. Mastering the Fair Isle technique allows you to create stunning visual effects
in garments, accessories, and home textiles.
THE CONTINENTAL STYLE: The Continental knitting style, often referred to as "picking," involves holding
the yarn in the left hand while the right hand manipulates the needles. This method allows for greater speed
and efficiency, particularly when working with complex patterns or multiple colours. To practice this style,
start by casting on your stitches and using your left hand to tension the yarn. With each stitch, simply "pick"
the yarn with your right needle, forming a quick and fluid motion. As you become comfortable with this
technique, you may find that your overall knitting speed and comfort improve significantly.
THE SHORT-ROW TECHNIQUE: Short-row knitting is an advanced technique that allows for the creation
of shaped garments, such as sleeves and shoulders, without the need for complex shaping. To make a
sleeve using this technique, begin by casting on the required number of stitches. Work a portion of the row,
then turn your work and return without completing the full row to create the "short rows" that shape the
curves of the sleeve. To prevent holes at the turn, wrap the stitch before you turn your work. Repeat this
process as needed to achieve the desired shaping and dimension of the sleeve. Once you have shaped the
sleeve, you can then sew the side seams to connect the pieces of your garment and finally, complete the
edges to ensure a clean finish. This method not only helps shape curves but also adds dimension to your
piece, allowing you to enhance fit and style.
Q. 27 Ensuring 'even stitches and prevent puckering' refers to the
Q. 32 Considering the techniques discussed, what might be inferred about the overall skill level required for mastering
Fair Isle and Continental knitting?
Q. 33 Which option includes the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the given sentence? "With
each stitch, simply pick the yarn with your right needle, forming a quick and fluid motion.
V. Direction for questions 36 to 45: Read the book descriptions for three different books and answer the questions by choosing the
most appropriate options.
The Politics of Change
In "The Politics of Change." political analyst Dr. Emily Harper examines the dynamics of social movements
and their impact on policy reform. Through detailed case studies, she explores how grassroots organizations,
protests, and advocacy campaigns shape public opinion and influence lawmakers. Dr. Harper provides
insights into the strategies that successful movements employ and discusses the challenges they face in a
complex political landscape. She discusses key strategies, such as coalition-building, media engagement,
and the use of digital platforms to amplify voices.
The Change in Politics
This book by veteran journalist Mark Stevens investigates the shifting political landscape in the 21st century.
Focusing on major elections, emerging political parties, and the role of social media, Stevens analyzes how
technology and demographics are transforming political engagement and voter behaviour. Through interviews
with political leaders, campaign strategists, and everyday voters, Stevens uncovers how demographic shifts
and technological advancements are reshaping political discourse in urban areas. He analyzes the implications
of these changes for traditional political institutions and explores how movements like #MeToo and Black
Lives Matter have disrupted conventional narratives.
Politics and Change: A Global Perspective
In this insightful work, international relations scholar Dr. Anika Patel presents a global analysis of political
change across various regions. She explores the factors that drive political transitions, including economic
shifts, cultural movements, and international influences. Dr. Patel emphasizes the interconnectedness of
global politics and how local changes can have far-reaching implications. She analyzes various factors
driving political transitions, including economic upheaval, cultural shifts, and the impact of globalization. She
provides case studies from diverse regions, such as the Arab Spring, democratic movements in Latin
America, and shifts in power in Asia. The book serves as a vital resource for understanding the complexities
of political evolution in a rapidly changing world.
Q. 36 In 'The Politics of Change,' Dr. Emily Harper analyzes various grassroots movements. Which of the following
factors does she most likely attribute to the success of these movements?
Q. 39 Which of the following strategies does Dr. Emily Harper argue is essential for social movements to effectively
influence policy reform in "The Politics of Change"?
Q. 40 Dr. Anika Patel's 'Politics and Change: A Global Perspective' explores the effects of globalization on local
politics. Which of the following concepts is most likely a focus of her analysis?
Q. 41 In 'The Change in Politics,' Mark Stevens highlights demographic shifts as a transformative factor in politics.
Which demographic change might, he argue, has the most significant influence on recent electoral outcomes?
Q. 42 In 'Politics and Change: A Global Perspective,' Dr. Anika Patel emphasizes the interconnectedness of political
systems. According to the passage, which approach would Dr. Anika Patel be most likely to use to assess
the impact of local changes on global politics?
Q. 43 In 'The Change in Politics,' Mark Stevens highlights the role of digital platforms in political engagement.
Which of the following outcomes would he most likely argue is a direct consequence of increased digital
engagement?
Q. 44 Dr. Anika Patel's 'Politics and Change: A Global Perspective' posits that local political movements are
interconnected with global trends. Which of the following would best illustrate this relationship?
Q. 45 Considering Dr. Anika Patel's arguments in 'Politics and Change: A Global Perspective,' which of the following
statements would best summarize her perspective on the role of local leaders in a globalized world?
VI. Direction for questions 46 to 50: Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate
answer.
The rise of renewable energy sources has become a crucial topic in the global fight against climate change.
Solar and wind power, in particular, have gained traction due to their ability to provide clean energy while
reducing dependence on fossil fuels. Governments worldwide are investing in technology to enhance energy
efficiency and storage solutions, aiming to create a more sustainable energy landscape. As the costs of
renewable technologies continue to decrease, the transition from traditional energy sources is becoming
not only environmentally necessary but also economically viable. However, this transition faces several
challenges. The intermittent nature of renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind, requires
advancements in energy storage to ensure a reliable supply. Additionally, existing infrastructure often relies
heavily on fossil fuels, necessitating significant investment to upgrade or replace systems. Policy makers
must navigate these complexities, balancing environmental goals with economic realities. The future of
energy will likely depend on collaboration between governments, industries, and consumers to foster innovation
and implement sustainable practices.
Q. 46 What is one of the major challenges faced in the transition to renewable energy?
Q. 51 The quality of drinking water is regularly measured in terms of TDS. Higher the TDS poorer the quality of
drinking water. What does TDS stand for?
Q. 52 In 2004. the Government of India decided to create a new category of languages known as 'Classical
Languages'. What are the latest criteria, announced in 2024, for inclusion of languages within this category?
I. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500- 2000 years.
II. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a heritage by generations of speakers.
III. Knowledge texts, especially prose texts in addition to poetry, epigraphical and inscriptional evidence.
IV. The classical languages and literature could be distinct from its current form or could be discontinuous
with later forms of its offshoots.
V. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
Q. 55 In 2024, the Government of India introduced the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, recognising key contributions in
the field of Science and Technology in India. In the first edition awards were presented in the following four
categories:
I. Vigyan Ratna
II. Vigyan Shri
III. Vigyan Yuva
IV. Vigyan Team
V. Vigyan Aavishkar
Q. 59 Nupi Lan, also known, as the 'Women War' was a significant revolt against the British and is often credited
as one of the earliest uprisings in India to be led entirely by women. In which present-day state did the
uprising take place?
Q. 61 As part of its NTMHP initiative, the Government of India recently introduced the TELE-MANAS, a 24/7
toll-free helpline (14416). What does TELE-MANAS stand for ?
Q. 62 Festivals in India are a vibrant reflection of its diverse culture, heritage and traditions. Match the following
festivals with the State with which its most frequently associated. While a festival may be celebrated in
many states, select the most appropriate response from the noted options below.
Q. 64 The Indian Air Force recently inaugurated a new training establishment, the Weapon Systems School (WSS),
with the aim of recalibrating and transforming the Indian Air Force as a future-oriented force. In which city
was the WSS located ?
Q. 65 Which of the following statements best describes the nature of the National Automated Clearing House
(NACH) implemented by the National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI)?
Q. 68 Which athlete achieved the distinction of becoming the first Indian athlete from independent India to win two
medals in a single edition of the Summer Olympics?
Q. 73 The following are various dance forms found in different parts of India. While a certain dance form may be
associated with more than one state, select the most appropriate response to the noted options below:
Q. 74 Vinesh Phogat was disqualified from the wrestling competition at the 2024 Paris Olympics after exceeding
the weight limit by 100 grams during the weigh-in for her 50 kg final. Her disqualification was upheld on
appeal. To which international body did Vinesh Phogat and the Indian Olympic Association appeal?
Q. 75 In September, 2024 a new scheme, Bio-RIDE, was approved in the area of biotechnology. Identify the
components of the scheme.
I. Biotechnology Research and Development
II. Industrial & Entrepreneurship Development
III. Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry
IV. Biotechnology parks and International Collaborations
Q. 77 M.S. Dhoni is considered to be one of the most successful captain and player in the popular Indian Premier
League (IPL). Which other franchise in addition to the Chennai Super Kings, has Dhoni played for?
Q. 79 Perseverance Rover, launched by NASA, is famous for its mission to explore the surface of which celestial
body, particularly to seek signs of ancient life and collect samples for future return to Earth.
Q. 81 Principle: The opportunity cost of a decision is the value of the next best alternative that is forgone when a
choice is made.
Facts: Shyam is an aspiring artist who has a chance to exhibit his paintings at a local gallery for two months.
He can either take this opportunity, which would allow him to showcase his work and potentially sell pieces
for a total profit of INR 50,000, or he can accept a temporary job offer for the same duration of two months,
that would earn him INR 30,000 in total. After careful consideration, Shyam decides to exhibit his paintings at
the gallery.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Shyam's decision?
Q. 82 Principle: Confirmation bias is the tendency to search for, interpret, and remember information in a way
that confirms one's pre-existing beliefs.
Facts: Mala is an avid believer in the benefits of a plant-based diet and often shares articles and studies that
support her view on social media. When she comes across a scientific study that suggests a balanced
omnivorous diet can also provide significant health benefits, she dismisses it without reading, focusing
instead on the findings of studies that align with her beliefs.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Mala's behaviour?
Q. 83 Principle: The Dunning-Kruger effect is a congnitive bias wherein individuals with low ability at a task
overestimate their ability, while those with high ability may underestimate their competence.
Facts: Tutu, a new employee at a tech company, recently completed a basic coding course. Feeling confident,
she frequently shares her opinions about software development with her colleagues, often dismissing their
suggestions as unnecessary. Meanwhile. Saba, a senior developer with years of experience, is careful
about her own ideas and often second-guesses her suggestions during team meetings.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Tutu and Saba’s behaviours?
Q. 84 Principle: Any person who publishes false statements that result in significant financial losses to a business
shall be guilty of an offense.
Facts: Jatin publishes a news article claiming that a popular restaurant has been serving unsafe food. Jatin
sincerely believes this to be true. The restaurant suffers significant financial losses as a result. However, it
is later revealed that the statements in Jatin's article were false.
Has Jatin committed an offence?
Q. 85 Principle: The impact of leadership styles on historical events can shape the course of nations and influence
the outcomes of conflicts. Facts: During the late 20th century, two prominent leaders emerged during a territorial dispute: X advocated
for peaceful negotiations and diplomacy, while Y supported aggressive military action to assert dominance.
After a series of failed internal talks, Y’s approach led to a major conflict, resulting in significant casualties
and territorial loss for both sides. In contrast, X’s proposed solution, although initially rejected, eventually
gained support and led to de-escalation of the conflict.
Based on the above, which of the following statements is most accurate?
Q. 86 Principle: A property owner is responsible for maintaining the safety of their premises and is liable for any
injuries that occur due to hazardous conditions in the premises, unless the injured party was trespassing.
Facts: Tara owns a retail store, and a heavy rainstorm caused a leak in the ceiling of the store. Tara was
aware of the leak but did not have time to fix it before customers arrived the next morning. She placed a sign
warning customers of the wet floor. However, Aman, who entered the store to browse, slipped on the wet
floor and injured his leg. Aman did not see the warning sign.
Based on the above which of the following statements is most accurate?
Q. 87 Principle: A party to a contract is responsible for fulfilling their obligations under the agreement and is liable
for damages if they fail to do so.
Facts: Richa enters into a contract with a catering company, Big Bites, to provide catering services for her
wedding reception. The contract specifies that Big Bites will provide food for 125 guests on a specific date.
On the day of the event, Big Bites only delivers food for 75 guests due to road closure on account of VIP
movement. Richa is forced to make last-minute alternate arrangements to feed the additional guests, incurring
extra costs.
Q. 88 Principle: A party who receives a benefit at the expense of another party is required to make restitution to
prevent unjust enrichment.
Facts: Anita hires a construction company, Best Builders, to renovate her swimming pool. The contract
states that Best Builders will install new water purifiers for a total cost of INR 10,000. During the renovation,
Best Builders installs high-end purifiers worth INR 15,000 instead of the standard ones specified in the
contract. When the project is completed, Anita enjoys the upgraded purifiers but only pays the agreed-upon
amount of INR 10,000.
Q. 89 Assertion: The rise of OTT platforms is challenging the traditional movie theatre business. Argument 1: OTT platforms and traditional movie theatre present completely different experience and
therefore are unlikely to affect each other. Argument 2: OTT platforms ensure instant availability of diverse content, which a traditional movie theatre
cannot emulate.
Q. 90 Issue: Is football the most popular sport in the world? Argument 1: Yes, Football World Cup (FIFA) have over five times global viewership as compared to Formula
1 Grand Prix (Car racing) or the Wimbledon Championships (Tennis). Argument 2: Yes, Lionel Messi is the most followed footballer across social media platforms. Argument 3: No, the Cricket World Cup has been the most profitable sports event worldwide for the last
three decades.
Q. 91 Statement: Sports competitions foster teamwork and discipline, providing athletes with opportunities to
develop skills and achieve personal goals. However, the rampant commercialisation of sports has shifted
the focus toward profit, sometimes leading to unethical practices such as match-fixing and doping. While
some argue that strict regulations are needed to preserve the integrity of sports, others believe that overregulation
may hinder athletic performance and creativity. Striking the right balance between commercial
interests and ethical standards remains a challenge.
Conclusion:
I. The commercialisation of sports has led to unethical practices.
II. Stricter regulations are always beneficial for sports integrity.
III. There is a need for balance between commercial interests and ethical practices in sports.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 92 Statement: Culinary arts have evolved significantly over the years, with chefs increasingly focusing on
sustainable and locally sourced ingredients. This shift has allowed for a resurgence of interest in traditional
cooking techniques alongside modern innovations. However, some culinary purists argue that these trends
threaten the authenticity of classic recipes, while others believe that the focus on sustainability enhances
the overall dining experience. The debate about preserving culinary heritage versus embracing new practices
continues among food enthusiasts. Conclusion:
I. The emphasis on sustainability has both benefits and challenges in the culinary world.
II. Traditional recipes will eventually become obsolete due to modern trends.
III. The culinary arts are enriched by the combination of tradition and innovation. Based on the above
Q. 93 Statement: The rise of independent bookstores in recent years has sparked a renewed interest in reading
and community engagement, offering curated selections that reflect local tastes and values. These bookstores
often host events, such as author readings and book clubs, creating spaces for meaningful conversations
and connections among readers. However, some critics argue that the increasing popularity of online retailers
poses a significant threat to the survival of these independent stores, potentially leading to a homogenisation
of literary culture. Others believe that the unique experiences and personal touch offered by independent
bookstores can sustain their relevance in a digital age.
Conclusion:
I. Independent bookstores play a crucial role in fostering community and promoting local culture.
II. The unique experiences provided by independent bookstores can help them thrive despite digital
competition.
III. Online retailers will inevitably lead to the decline of independent bookstores. Based on the above statement,
which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 94 Statement: The rise of global tourism has significantly impacted local economies by providing job opportunities
and boosting income for many communities. However, it has also led to challenges such as environmental
degradation and cultural dilution, as traditional practices and lifestyles are altered to cater to tourists. As a
result, many experts advocate for sustainable tourism practices that balance economic benefits with the
preservation of local culture and the environment.
Conclusion:
I. All communities benefit equally from the economic opportunities presented by global tourism.
II. Sustainable tourism practices are essential to minimize the negative impacts of tourism on local cultures
and environments.
III. The rise of tourism has no significant negative effects on local communities. Based on the above statement,
which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 95 Statement: Urban gardening has gained traction in recent years as a way for city dwellers to grow their own
food and improve their mental well-being. This movement was partly fuelled by growing concerns about
food deserts, environmental sustainability, and the desire for a connection to nature. However, critics argue
that urban gardening often does not address the systemic issues of access to fresh food and can sometimes
lead to gentrification, where original community members are displaced as property values rise. Despite
these criticisms, many individuals find personal fulfilment and community among fellow urban gardeners.
Conclusion:
I. Urban gardening can heighten food insecurity in cities.
II. Many individuals benefit emotionally and socially from participating in urban gardening.
III. Urban gardening can unintentionally contribute to the gentrification of neighbourhoods, harming longterm
residents.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 96 Statement: A fundamental principle of artificial intelligence (Al) development is to ensure that Al systems are
designed with fairness and inclusivity in mind. Developers are expected to implement algorithms that do not
discriminate against any demographic group, as bias in Al can lead to significant societal harm. Furthermore,
transparency in how Al models make decisions is essential to building trust among users and stakeholders.
Conclusion:
I. It is inappropriate to criticize Al developers for biased outcomes if they have made efforts to promote
fairness and transparency in their models.
II. Al developers must prioritize eliminating biases in their algorithms as a key objective
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 97 Statement: The discovery of electricity centuries ago led to profound changes in communication,
transportation, and industry, significantly altering daily life and economic structures. It is also important to
note that the rapid industrialization that followed was accompanied by notable environmental degradation,
giving rise to early conservation movements that sought to protect natural resources. Some modern political
movements propagate a narrative that portrays technological progress as inherently beneficial, often
overlooking the environmental costs associated with it. Conclusion:
I. Many political movements today ignore the environmental impacts of technological advancements.
II. It is not possible to have industrial progress without environmental degradation.
III. The discovery of electricity has had both positive and negative effects on society.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 98 Statement: The invention of antibiotics in the early 20th century revolutionised healthcare by drastically
reducing mortality rates from infectious diseases and enabling more complex surgeries. However, the overuse
of antibiotics in recent decades has contributed to the rise of drug-resistant bacteria, posing new health
risks. Simultaneously, public health policies have had to balance the benefits of antibiotic use with the
dangers of resistance. Some modern pharmaceutical practices focus primarily on maximizing profits, often
sidelining the long-term risks of resistance. Conclusion:
I. Profit-driven motives always undermine public health priorities.
II. Overuse of antibiotics has resulted in significant health challenges.
III. Advances in healthcare can introduce unintended risks over time.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 99 Statement: The widespread adoption of social media services in the 21st century has transformed how
people communicate, enabling instant global connections. However, this shift has also contributed to the
spread of misinformation, impacting public trust and social cohesion. In response, some governments have
introduced stricter regulations, but these efforts raise concerns about potential censorship and freedom of
expression. Some activists argue that controlling misinformation through regulation is necessary, even at
the expense of individual freedoms.
Conclusion:
I. The rise of social media services has both benefits and drawbacks for society.
II. Governments should prioritize freedom of expression over controlling misinformation.
III. Efforts to regulate misinformation come with complex trade-offs.
Based on the above statement, which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 100 In education policy, the concept of inclusive education advocates for integrating students with disabilities
into mainstream classrooms to promote diversity and equal opportunities. However, critics claim that focusing
too much on inclusion can strain resources and may lead to a decline in educational quality for students
both with and without disabilities.
Which of the following arguments would most strengthen the critics position?
Q. 101 In business strategy, the concept of diversification involves expanding a company's operations into new
markets or product lines to reduce risk and enhance growth potential. Though, diversification can lead to
increased revenue streams and a more resilient business model, critics contend that diversification can
dilute a company's core competencies and result in inefficiencies, ultimately harming overall performance.
Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly drawn?
Q. 102 A recent survey of smartphone users revealed that 70% of respondents believe that data privacy is important.
However, only 30% actively use privacy settings on their devices The survey indicates that a major reason
for this is that many users find privacy settings confusing and difficult to navigate.
Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly drawn ?
Q. 103 A consumer advocacy group published a report accusing Alpha Electronics Company of producing faulty
products, misleading advertising, and failing to provide adequate customer service. The report presented
various customer testimonials and product reviews as evidence of these issues.
Which of the following assumptions, if true, most strengthens the advocacy group's claims?
Q. 104 In scientific inquiry, the hypothesis is a testable statement that predicts the relationship between variables.
According to the scientific method, the validity of a hypothesis is determined by its ability to withstand empirical
testing and produce consistent results. Critics of this approach argue that relying solely on empirical data
can lead to the neglect of theoretical frameworks that provide context for understanding phenomena.
Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly made?
Q. 105 Recent studies indicate that the implementation of remote work policies has led to an increase in employee
productivity in many companies. Factors contributing to this trend include reduced commuting time, greater
flexibility in work hours, and the ability for employees to create personalised work environments. However,
the studies also note that employees who work remotely may experience feelings of isolation and disconnection
from their colleagues, which could impact team cohesion and communication. Companies that have adopted
remote work policies are now considering whether to continue, modify, or return to traditional in-office work
arrangements.
Which of the following conclusion can be most accurately drawn from the above ?
Q. 112 All gadgets are machines. Some gadgets are tools. All machines are useful. Examine the following statements:
I. Some tools are useful.
II. All that is useful are machines.
III. All tools are gadgets.
Q. 113 All International Court of Justice (ICJ) judgments are binding on parties involved in the case. Some ICJ
judgments have persuasive value in domestic courts. Judgments of domestic courts can be referenced by
the ICJ, but they are not binding.
Examine the following statements:
I. Some ICJ judgments are binding on domestic courts.
II. Some domestic court judgments are binding on the ICJ.
III. ICJ judgments can be used to strengthen arguments in domestic courts.
Q. 114 All drivers are Tall. Some Tall persons violate traffic lights. All who violate traffic lights are fined. B is Tall.
Examine the following statements:
I. B is a driver.
II. B may violate a traffic light.
III. B will definitely violate traffic light.
IV. If B is a driver, he will get fined.
V. B will definitely get fined.
Q. 115 Some Hyenas are Lions. All Lions are Cats. Some Cats are Wolves.
Examine the following statements:
I. Some Cats are Lions.
II. Some Wolves are Lions.
III. Some Cats are Hyenas.
Select the correct option :
Q. 116 All Squirrels are Herbivores. Some Herbivores are Elephants. All Elephants are Mammals. Some Mammals
are Carnivores. Examine the following statements:
I. Some Mammals are Herbivores.
II. All Elephants are Squirrels.
III. Some Carnivores are Herbivores.
Q. 117 All Engineers are Mathematicians. Some Mathematicians are Authors. No Author is a Scientist. Some
Engineers are Scientists Examine the following statements.
I. No Author is an Engineer.
II. Some Scientists are Engineers.
III. Some Mathematicians are not Scientists.
Q. 126 University Academic Department is finalising class schedules for the incoming batch. The subjects are
Criminal Law, Property Law, Economics, Legal Methods and English. The following considerations are kept
in mind:
I. All subjects must be held once
II. Legal Methods and English cannot immediately precede or follow each other
III. Economics must immediately precede Property Law
IV. Economics must immediately follow English
V. Criminal Law cannot be the second or the last subject
Q. 127 Vinay is trying to decide the sequence in which to watch the following movies - Sholay (SH). RRR, Slumdog
Millionaire (SM), PK and Dangal (DL). The sequence must adhere to the following conditions:
I. SH and DL must not immediately precede or follow each other.
II. RRR must go after SM.
III. PK cannot be the first or the last movie.
IV. DL must necessarily be one removed from SM.
Q. 128 Sanjana is attempting to create an exercise plan for a 5-day week. She has decided on the following exercises
- A, X, B, Y, C, in accordance with the following conditions.
I. A and Y cannot be on the consecutive days
II. C must always be followed by B
III. B and A cannot be done on alternate days
IV. X cannot be done on the first day of the week
V. No exercise can be repeated in the week
Q. 129 All Rabbits are Sleepers. All Tortoise paints. Some Rabbits are Tortoise. Siri is a Rabbit. Examine the following
statements:
I. Siri paints
II. Siri does not paint
III. Siri is a Sleeper
IV. Siri is not a Sleeper
V. Siri is a Tortoise
VI. Siri is not a Tortoise
Q. 130 All Cherry are Pink. Some Pink are made into cake. All cake is eaten. Banana is Pink. Examine the following
statements:
I. Banana is a Cherry
II. Banana is not a Cherry
III. Banana may be made into cake
IV. Banana will definitely be made into a cake
V. If Banana is Cherry, then it will be eaten
Q. 131 Effective teamwork is crucial for project success in any organization. Research indicates that diverse teams,
which include members with different backgrounds and skill sets, often produce more innovative solutions
than homogeneous teams. However, team dynamics can be affected by conflict if not managed properly.
Studies show that teams with effective conflict resolution strategies tend to achieve their goals faster and
with higher satisfaction levels among team members. In organizations, it is essential to implement training
programs that teach conflict resolution techniques to enhance team performance.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
Q. 132 All mobile phones with advanced camera features are popular among social media influencers. Mobile
phones that are popular among social media influencers often have high storage capacity. None of the
mobile phones manufactured by Brand B have advanced camera features.
Which of the following necessarily follows if the above is true?
Q. 133 The study of ancient civilisations reveals much about human history and cultural development. Archaeological
findings indicate that societies that engaged in trade and cultural exchange often experienced advancements
in art, architecture, and technology. For instance, the exchange of ideas and goods between the Egyptians
and Mesopotamians led to significant innovations in farming and engineering. However, some civilisations
that isolated themselves from others faced stagnation in cultural and technological progress.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
Q. 134 The exploration of space has captivated humanity for decades, sparking advancements in various scientific
fields. Astronomers have discovered numerous celestial bodies, expanding our understanding of the universe
and our place within it. Additionally, space missions have led to significant developments in technology, such
as satellite communications and materials science. While the costs of space exploration can be high, the
potential benefits, including inspiring future generations and fostering international collaboration, are profound.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
Q. 135 Art has long served as a powerful means of expression and communication. Throughout history, artists
have utilised various mediums-such as painting, sculpture, and music-to convey their thoughts, emotions,
and critiques of society. Many art movements have emerged in response to cultural and political changes,
highlighting the dynamic relationship between art and the world around it. Additionally, exposure to diverse
forms of art can enhance creativity and foster empathy among individuals, making it a vital aspect of human
experience.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
Q. 136 All buildings constructed with EarthTech materials are energy efficient. Buildings that are energy efficient
qualify for government tax rebates. None of the buildings constructed by Cloudline Developers are energy
efficient.
Q. 137 In recent years, research in nutrition and health has highlighted the importance of dietary habits in influencing
physical well-being and preventing long-term diseases. Studies indicate that a balanced diet rich in fruits,
vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins is associated with lower rates of obesity, diabetes, and heart
disease. Moreover, food choices are often shaped by factors such as socioeconomic status, availability of
healthy food options, and cultural preferences, suggesting that environmental influences play a critical role
in dietary habits.
If the paragraph above is true, which of the following statements is most contradicted by the paragraph?
Q. 138 The field of psychology has increasingly recognized the role of emotional intelligence (El) in personal and
professional success. Research indicates that individuals with high El are better equipped to manage stress,
communicate effectively, and resolve conflicts. Furthermore. El has been linked to improved leadership
qualities and team dynamics. While cognitive intelligence (IQ) remains important, many experts argue that
El may be a better predictor of success in the workplace. However, the measurement of emotional intelligence
can be subjective and varies across different cultural contexts.
Which of the following statements is the most inconsistent with the information provided in the paragraph
above?
Q. 139 Many students find that their study habits significantly impact their academic performance. Those who
establish a consistent study schedule often report better retention of information and higher grades.
Additionally, the use of active learning techniques, such as summarizing material and teaching concepts to
peers, enhances understanding. However, some students struggle to find the right balance between studying
and leisure activities, which can lead to stress and decreased productivity.
Based on the paragraph, which of the following statements would most reasonably complete the sentence
below?
The variation in student performance suggests that ________
Q. 140 An enterprise has the responsibility to ensure the safety of its products before selling them to the public.
While no product can be entirely risk-free, if an enterprise knows that a product has significant defects that
could harm consumers, it is their duty to either fix those defects or provide clear warnings. Unfortunately,
some enterprises prioritize profits over safety and release products that may pose serious risks to the
public.
Which of the statements below is most consistent with the paragraph above?
Q. 141 A wildfire has broken out in a large national park, spreading quickly due to dry conditions and strong winds.
The forest officers only have a limited amount of firefighting resources, including helicopters, water trucks,
and personnel. They must decide where to allocate these resources to save as much of the park as possible.
To maximize their efforts, they prioritise the areas of the park that are home to endangered species and
ecosystems that would be the hardest to recover if destroyed by the fire.
Which of the following most mirrors the principle in the passage above ?
I. A university offers a limited number of scholarships each year. To ensure the best use of its funds, it
prioritizes applicants from underprivileged backgrounds and those with academic potential, believing
this will have the most significant long-term impact on the community.
II. A charitable foundation receives an influx of donations for disaster relief. In distributing the funds, it focuses
on the hardest-hit communities where homes were completely destroyed, providing them with emergency
shelter and rebuilding services before addressing other needs.
III. A large grocery store faces a major food supply shortage due to transportation issues. To minimize the
impact on customers, the store decides to limit the sale of high-demand items like milk, bread, and meat,
allowing each shopper to purchase only a small amount to ensure everyone can get basic supplies.
Q. 142 Where public safety or the protection of human life is at stake, it is justified to limit personal freedoms and
privacy in order to ensure the well-being of the broader public. Based on the above principle, which of the
following actions would be justified?
Q. 143 The rapid advancement of technology has significantly changed the way people interact with one another.
While technology facilitates communication and connects people across distances, it can also lead to
feelings of isolation and disconnection in face-to-face relationships. Many individuals find that they are more
comfortable sharing their thoughts and feelings online rather than in person, which can diminish the quality
of their real-world interactions.
Based on the above passage, which conclusion necessarily follows?
Q. 144 A company. GreenFuel, argues that its new biofuel product is entirely eco-friendly because it is made from
renewable resources. GreenFuel claims that since the product is derived from organic matter, it has zero
negative impact on the environment.
Which of the following, if true, most weaken GreenFuel's argument above?
Q. 145 Advocates for early coding education argue that teaching programming skills to children from a young age
will enhance their problem-solving abilities and prepare them for a technology-driven future. Therefore,
coding should be introduced as a mandatory subject in elementary schools.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?
Q. 146 Recent research indicates that excessive consumption of processed foods is linked to an increased risk of
obesity. A five-year study tracked two groups: one that regularly consumed processed foods and another
that followed a whole-foods- based diet. The study found that the processed-food group had a 25% higher
rate of obesity by the end of the study. Therefore, the study concluded that processed food consumption
directly causes obesity.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?
Q. 147 Prakash has been working as a software engineer at Company A for 10 years. Recently, he discovered that
a new hire, who has less experience and fewer qualifications, is being paid more than him. Prakash
approached his manager with this concern and was told that the new hire's pay is based on market demand
for talent in that particular programming language. Prakash believes he is being treated unfairly based on his
seniority and qualifications.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens Prakash's claim of unfair treatment?
Q. 148 Sarab and her brother Sateesh have been sharing household chores for several years. Recently, Sarab
noticed that Sateesh consistently gets lighter tasks, such as taking out the trash, while she is assigned
more time-consuming duties, like cooking and cleaning the entire house. When Sarab brought this up to
their parents, they explained that Sateesh is assigned tasks based on his school workload and extracurricular
activities, which are more demanding than Sarab s. Sarab believes she is being treated unfairly and that the
division of chores is biased.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens Sarab's claim of unfair treatment?
Q. 149 A ban on cell phones in schools is necessary as it distracts students from their academics, it is unnecessary
as in an emergency the school landlines can be used. A break from social media during the school day
would remove the stress and help students build their concentration and enhance their learning.
What is the assumption being made about cell phones?
Q. 150 Caroline Hoxby has produced a large body of research looking at college applications by low-income students.
In “The Missing One-Offs,” she and Christopher Avery showed that students with high grades and low
economics standing often refrain from applying to more prestigious schools, despite those schools’ better
financial support. Their research suggests that students who avoid selective schools are usually choosing
to apply to the same schools their friends and economic peers do. Hoxby and Avery conclude that this is
either a consequence of their being underinformed about their options (a fault of recruitment) or believing
that the culture and atmosphere of prestigious colleges wouldn't be very inviting to them (a fault of the
schools and their PR).
Which of the following can be properly inferred from the passage?
